questions.json

[
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a Linux and macOS network administration command-line utility used for DNS queries?",
    "options": [
      "route",
      "echo",
      "dig",
      "ethtool"
    ],
    "answer": "dig"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which netstat parameter allows displaying all active TCP connections and the TCP/UDP ports on which the computer is listening?",
    "options": [
      "-a",
      "-p",
      "-e",
      "-r"
    ],
    "answer": "-a",
	"explanation": "-a: all connections and listening ports | -p: process ID | -e: extended info, timers and users | -r: routing table | -t: only TCP | -u: only UDP | -l: only listening "
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following netstat parameters allows displaying the names of applications and executable file components that are accessing the network?",
    "options": [
      "-a",
      "-n",
      "-b",
      "-p"
    ],
    "answer": "-b"
  },
  {
    "question": "What is the name of a Windows command-line utility that can be used to display TCP/IP configuration settings?",
    "options": [
      "ifconfig",
      "iwconfig",
      "ipconfig",
      "iptables"
    ],
    "answer": "ipconfig"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to an ipconfig command parameter used for displaying the full TCP/IP configuration information for all adapters?",
    "options": [
      "-a",
      "/?",
      "/all",
      "/list"
    ],
    "answer": "/all"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which ipconfig parameter allows displaying detailed information about the computer's network configuration?",
    "options": [
      "-a",
      "/all",
      "/a",
      "-ano"
    ],
    "answer": "/all"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following command-line commands in MS Windows are used for resetting the DHCP configuration settings for all adapters? (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "ipconfig /down",
      "ipconfig /release",
      "ipconfig /up",
      "ipconfig /renew",
      "ifconfig /release",
      "ifconfig /renew"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "ipconfig /release",
      "ipconfig /renew"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "What is the name of a Linux command-line utility that can be used to display TCP/IP configuration settings?",
    "options": [
      "ethtool",
      "ifconfig",
      "netstat",
      "ipconfig"
    ],
    "answer": "ifconfig"
  },
  {
    "question": "The ip command in Linux is the preferred replacement for:",
    "options": [
      "ping",
      "ifconfig",
      "dig",
      "ipconfig"
    ],
    "answer": "ifconfig"
  },
  {
    "question": "The arp command can be used to perform what kind of resolution?",
    "options": [
      "IP to FQDN",
      "MAC to IP",
      "IP to MAC",
      "FQDN to IP"
    ],
    "answer": "IP to MAC"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which command in MS Windows displays a table consisting of IP addresses and their resolved physical addresses?",
    "options": [
      "tracert -d",
      "arp -a",
      "netstat -n",
      "route print"
    ],
    "answer": "arp -a"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the CLI tools listed below is used for discovering hosts and services on a computer network?",
    "options": [
      "Nmap",
      "tcpdump",
      "netcat",
      "Zenmap"
    ],
    "answer": "Nmap"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a vendor-neutral protocol used for network devices to advertise their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a LAN?",
    "options": [
      "LACP",
      "Syslog",
      "LLDP",
      "SNMP"
    ],
    "answer": "LLDP"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a Cisco-proprietary network protocol used by Cisco devices to share information about directly connected devices, such as device identity, capabilities, and IP address information?",
    "options": [
      "LLDP",
      "NDP",
      "CDP",
      "LACP"
    ],
    "answer": "CDP"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which network discovery protocol would be the most suitable for multi-vendor networking environments?",
    "options": [
      "LLDP",
      "SNMP",
      "NDP",
      "OSPF"
    ],
    "answer": "LLDP"
  },
  {
    "question": "A speed tester is a software tool used to measure the performance of a network connection, particularly in terms of bandwidth (upload and download speeds) and latency. It is crucial for diagnosing network issues such as:",
    "options": [
      "Slow internet speeds",
      "Inconsistent performance",
      "Verifying speeds provided by the ISP",
      "All of the above"
    ],
    "answer": "All of the above"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which hardware tool allows to trace and identify individual wires within a bundle?",
    "options": [
      "Cable certifier",
      "Line tester",
      "Toner & probe kit",
      "Wire mapper"
    ],
    "answer": "Toner & probe kit"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a hardware tool designed to verify the integrity and connectivity of network cables?",
    "options": [
      "Cable tester",
      "Toner & probe kit",
      "Signal tracer",
      "Bandwidth tester"
    ],
    "answer": "Cable tester"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which device enables network traffic monitoring without interrupting the data flow?",
    "options": [
      "Transceiver",
      "Repeater",
      "Ethernet adapter",
      "Network tap"
    ],
    "answer": "Network tap"
  },
  {
    "question": "A Wi-Fi analyzer is not designed for:",
    "options": [
      "Measuring the strength of the Wi-Fi signal",
      "Detecting interference from other devices or networks",
      "Analyzing wireless channel usage",
      "Capturing and inspecting network traffic data"
    ],
    "answer": "Capturing and inspecting network traffic data"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a hardware tool designed to locate faults in copper cabling?",
    "options": [
      "Multimeter",
      "Visual fault locator",
      "Loopback plug",
      "None of the above"
    ],
    "answer": "None of the above"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following commands displays the MAC address table of a switch or router, showing which MAC addresses are associated with which ports?",
    "options": [
      "ip link show",
      "arp -a",
      "show mac-address-table",
      "getmac"
    ],
    "answer": "show mac-address-table"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which command on a router or a Layer 3 switch device displays the routing table of the device?",
    "options": [
      "list route",
      "route print",
      "show route",
      "print route"
    ],
    "answer": "show route"
  },
  {
    "question": "The show interface command displays the current configuration of a device, including interface settings, routing protocols, VLAN configurations, and other device settings. This command is used to review the device\u2019s configuration and verify that it is set up correctly.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "False"
  },
  {
    "question": "The show config command provides detailed information about the status and performance of network interfaces on a device. This includes interface status (up or down), IP address, bandwidth usage, errors, and other statistics such as packet loss or collisions. It helps diagnose interface issues, such as connectivity problems or high error rates.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "False"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which command on a router or switch would be used to display the mapping between IP addresses and MAC addresses?",
    "options": [
      "show interface",
      "show config",
      "show arp",
      "show mac-address-table"
    ],
    "answer": "show arp"
  },
  {
    "question": "The show vlan command displays information about the VLANs configured on a switch, including VLAN IDs, names, and the ports associated with each VLAN. It helps troubleshoot VLAN configurations and verify which ports belong to which VLANs.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the commands listed below would be useful for diagnosing and troubleshooting issues on devices with PoE capabilities?",
    "options": [
      "show voltage",
      "show power",
      "show wattage",
      "show load"
    ],
    "answer": "show power"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below does not refer to a common metric used by routing protocols to determine the optimal path for traffic?",
    "options": [
      "Load",
      "Bandwidth",
      "Delay",
      "Administrative distance",
      "Hop count",
      "Cost"
    ],
    "answer": "Administrative distance"
  },
  {
    "question": "The term \"Default route\" refers to a network path used by a router as a \"last resort\" for forwarding packets with destination addresses not listed in its routing table. When no other specific route matches, the router uses the default route to send the packet to a predetermined next-hop address, typically a gateway or another router, which can handle traffic to unknown destinations. The default route is often represented as 0.0.0.0/0 in IPv4 or ::/0 in IPv6.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following mechanisms can be used to mitigate routing loops?",
    "options": [
      "Maximum hop count",
      "TTL",
      "Route poisoning",
      "Split Horizon",
      "Hold-down timer",
      "All of the above"
    ],
    "answer": "All of the above"
  },
  {
    "question": "A network administrator discovers that employees cannot connect to the corporate network because the DHCP server is unable to assign IP addresses to new devices. Which of the actions listed below could help resolve this issue? (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "Reduce the DHCP lease time",
      "Increase the size of the DHCP address pool",
      "Extend the lease time for DHCP addresses to reduce address renewals",
      "Implement IPAM to monitor and manage IP address usage",
      "Disable DHCP relay agents"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Reduce the DHCP lease time",
      "Increase the size of the DHCP address pool",
      "Implement IPAM to monitor and manage IP address usage"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following is a symptom of an exhausted DHCP scope?",
    "options": [
      "APIPA address",
      "IP address reservation error",
      "Network congestion",
      "DHCP server timeout"
    ],
    "answer": "APIPA address"
  },
  {
    "question": "A network technician is troubleshooting a device that is unable to access websites, but it can communicate with other devices within the same local network. The device has the following IP configuration: IP address: 192.168.1.10, subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway: 192.168.2.1, and DNS server: 8.8.8.8. Based on this configuration, which of the following is the most probable cause of the issue?",
    "options": [
      "Misconfigured DHCP server",
      "Incorrect subnet mask",
      "Firewall blocking external traffic",
      "Incorrect default gateway"
    ],
    "answer": "Incorrect default gateway"
  },
  {
    "question": "Duplicate IP addresses on a network can occur due to: (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "DNS caching errors",
      "Incorrect static IP assignments",
      "Routing table corruption",
      "Subnet mask mismatch",
      "Rogue DHCP servers"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Incorrect static IP assignments",
      "Rogue DHCP servers"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "A network technician is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a small office network where one of the devices is unable to communicate with other devices on the same network. The device has the following IP configuration: IP address: 192.168.1.100, subnet mask: 255.255.0.0, default gateway: 192.168.1.1, and DNS server: 8.8.8.8. Other devices on the network with similar IP configurations are able to communicate without issues. Based on this information, what is the most likely cause of this problem?",
    "options": [
      "Incorrect default gateway",
      "Incorrect subnet mask",
      "IP address out of range",
      "Incorrect VLAN assignment"
    ],
    "answer": "Incorrect subnet mask"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the solutions listed below would be of help in managing network congestion?",
    "options": [
      "Implementing QoS",
      "Increasing bandwidth",
      "Implementing traffic shaping or load balancing",
      "All of the above"
    ],
    "answer": "All of the above"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following directly addresses the root cause of bottlenecking?",
    "options": [
      "Routing path optimization",
      "Hardware or software upgrades",
      "Network diagnostics",
      "Bandwidth usage monitoring"
    ],
    "answer": "Hardware or software upgrades"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which solution would be the most effective in troubleshooting bandwidth or throughput capacity problems?",
    "options": [
      "Enabling QoS for all traffic",
      "Upgrading network infrastructure",
      "Implementing CDNs",
      "Reducing the usage of bandwidth-intensive applications"
    ],
    "answer": "Upgrading network infrastructure"
  },
  {
    "question": "Users in Europe are experiencing high latency when accessing content hosted on a server in the United States. The latency is causing slow loading times and a poor user experience. Which solution would most effectively reduce latency for these users?",
    "options": [
      "VPN",
      "SDN",
      "QoS",
      "CDN"
    ],
    "answer": "CDN"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to (a) CLI tool(s) designed for packet loss detection? (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "nslookup",
      "ping",
      "tracert",
      "netstat",
      "traceroute"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "ping",
      "tracert",
      "traceroute"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "During VoIP calls, users report audio quality issues, including delays in hearing responses (latency) and choppy sound (jitter), resulting in poor call quality. These issues persist even when the network connection appears stable. Which of the following solutions would most effectively address these problems?",
    "options": [
      "Enabling data compression",
      "Disabling encryption on VoIP traffic",
      "Implementing QoS",
      "Restarting the VoIP application"
    ],
    "answer": "Implementing QoS"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following would not help resolve the problem of channel overlapping in a Wi-Fi network?",
    "options": [
      "Use a Wi-Fi analyzer to identify less congested channels",
      "Reconfigure APs to use non-overlapping channels (e.g., 1, 6, or 11 in the 2.4 GHz band)",
      "Consider switching to a higher-frequency band for less interference",
      "All of the above are valid steps in troubleshooting channel overlapping issues"
    ],
    "answer": "All of the above are valid steps in troubleshooting channel overlapping issues"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the actions listed below would not help in troubleshooting wireless signal degradation or loss?",
    "options": [
      "Ensure devices are within the effective range of the Wi-Fi signal",
      "Check for physical obstructions (e.g., walls, furniture) and reposition APs",
      "Adjust the antennas on the AP for optimal signal coverage",
      "Upgrade to higher-gain antennas or use signal boosters",
      "Check for interference from electronic devices (e.g., microwaves, cordless phones)",
      "Switch to a lower-frequency band to avoid signal degradation",
      "Consider using Wi-Fi extenders or mesh networks to improve coverage",
      "All of the above are valid steps in troubleshooting wireless signal degradation or loss"
    ],
    "answer": "Switch to a lower-frequency band to avoid signal degradation"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following tools would be used for identifying wireless signal coverage issues? (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "Signal booster",
      "Network heatmap",
      "Higher gain antenna",
      "Wi-Fi analyzer",
      "AP power level controls",
      "Wireless repeater",
      "Additional AP"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Network heatmap",
      "Wi-Fi analyzer"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to an example solution for the wireless client disassociation problem?",
    "options": [
      "Reducing the frequency of beacon frames sent by the AP",
      "Implementing security features that prevent deauthentication attacks",
      "Setting up a guest Wi-Fi network with a separate SSID",
      "Limiting the maximum number of connected devices"
    ],
    "answer": "Implementing security features that prevent deauthentication attacks"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers describe correct steps for resolving wireless roaming misconfigurations? (Select 3 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Ensure all APs in the network broadcast the same SSID",
      "Configure all APs to use unique passphrases",
      "Adjust AP locations to provide adequate signal overlap",
      "Ensure all APs in the network broadcast different SSIDs",
      "Confirm that all APs use identical encryption protocols and passphrases",
      "Adjust AP locations to provide minimal or no signal overlap"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Ensure all APs in the network broadcast the same SSID",
      "Adjust AP locations to provide adequate signal overlap",
      "Confirm that all APs use identical encryption protocols and passphrases"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "What is the main function of a protocol analyzer?",
    "options": [
      "Controlling access to network services",
      "Monitoring user activity on websites",
      "Capturing and inspecting data",
      "Filtering network traffic based on content"
    ],
    "answer": "Capturing and inspecting data"
  },
  {
    "question": "A command-line utility used for checking the reachability of a remote network host is called:",
    "options": [
      "ping",
      "tracert",
      "dig",
      "netstat"
    ],
    "answer": "ping"
  },
  {
    "question": "A Linux command-line utility for displaying intermediary points (routers) the IPv4 packet is passed through on its way to another network node is known as:",
    "options": [
      "nbtstat",
      "traceroute",
      "netstat",
      "tracert"
    ],
    "answer": "traceroute"
  },
  {
    "question": "A network command-line utility in MS Windows that tracks and displays the route taken by IPv4 packets on their way to another host is called:",
    "options": [
      "ping",
      "traceroute",
      "nslookup",
      "tracertz"
    ],
    "answer": "tracertz"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the command-line tools listed below can be used for troubleshooting DNS-related problems on MS Windows?",
    "options": [
      "nslookup",
      "dig",
      "nscd",
      "dnsutils"
    ],
    "answer": "nslookup"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a command-line packet capturing utility?",
    "options": [
      "netcat",
      "tcpreplay",
      "nmap",
      "tcpdump"
    ],
    "answer": "tcpdump"
  },
  {
    "question": "Each PoE device connected to a switch consumes a certain amount of power. A power budget represents the maximum electrical power a PoE switch can supply to its connected devices. The total power consumption of all connected devices must not surpass the switch's power budget.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which troubleshooting step would not be helpful in resolving the issue of the total power consumption of connected PoE devices exceeding the available power budget of a PoE switch?",
    "options": [
      "Checking the total power budget of the PoE switch and the power requirements of all connected devices",
      "Using a multimeter to measure and verify the power consumption of individual devices",
      "Disconnecting non-essential PoE devices to reduce the load on the power budget",
      "Upgrading to a PoE switch with a higher power budget or adding an external PoE injector if necessary",
      "Ensuring the switch's firmware is up to date, as it can improve power consumption metrics in some cases"
    ],
    "answer": "Using a multimeter to measure and verify the power consumption of individual devices"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which tool would be used to verify compatibility between the PoE standard supported by the PoE switch and the connected PoE devices?",
    "options": [
      "PoE tester",
      "Cable certifier",
      "Power meter",
      "Voltage tester"
    ],
    "answer": "PoE tester"
  },
  {
    "question": "A network technician is troubleshooting a newly installed 40 Gbps fiber link between two switches. Despite verifying that the cable is correctly connected, the interfaces are enabled, and the cable length is within the supported range, the link remains down. Upon inspection, it is discovered that one end of the link uses an SFP module, while the other end uses a QSFP module. What is the most probable cause of the issue?",
    "options": [
      "Transceiver mismatch",
      "Network congestion causing link failure",
      "Interface duplex mismatch",
      "Faulty SFP/QSFP module"
    ],
    "answer": "Transceiver mismatch"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a tool used for troubleshooting signal strength issues in fiber-optic network links?",
    "options": [
      "Wire map tester",
      "Signal tracer",
      "Optical power meter",
      "Spectrum analyzer"
    ],
    "answer": "Optical power meter"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which troubleshooting tool would be used to test and verify signal quality for a copper-based Ethernet network link?",
    "options": [
      "Network tap",
      "Cable tester",
      "Multimeter",
      "Tone generator"
    ],
    "answer": "Cable tester"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following would be of help in troubleshooting wireless signal strength issues?",
    "options": [
      "Wireless site survey",
      "AP power level controls",
      "Wi-Fi analyzer",
      "Network heatmap generator",
      "All of the above"
    ],
    "answer": "All of the above"
  },
  {
    "question": "A condition in which multiple active paths between switches are causing packets to circulate endlessly is called a:",
    "options": [
      "Routing loop",
      "Broadcast storm",
      "Network loop",
      "Flooding attack"
    ],
    "answer": "Network loop",
	"explanation": "Routing Loop: layer 3 router problem | Network Loop: aka a Switching Loop, layer 2 | Broadcast Storm: what happens when switching loop happens"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the protocols listed below provide protection against broadcast storms and switching loops? (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "SRTP",
      "BPDU",
      "STP",
      "LLDP",
      "RSTP"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "STP",
      "RSTP"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers does not describe the role of a root bridge?",
    "options": [
      "Ensures there is only one active path between any two devices",
      "Helps prevent network loops",
      "Decides the optimal paths for data to travel",
      "Serves as the reference point for all other switches in the network",
      "Balances the network load between other switching devices"
    ],
    "answer": "Balances the network load between other switching devices"
  },
  {
    "question": "A bridge ID is a unique identifier (a combination of a switch's priority value and its MAC address) used to determine the root bridge in a network. Based on its bridge ID, which of the devices listed below would be selected as the root bridge?",
    "options": [
      "Switch A: 40960-00:0A:95:9D:68:16",
      "Switch B: 32768-00:0A:95:9D:68:17",
      "Switch C: 40960-00:0A:95:9D:68:18",
      "Switch D: 32768-00:0A:95:9D:68:19"
    ],
    "answer": "Switch B: 32768-00:0A:95:9D:68:17"
  },
  {
    "question": "The port on a non-root bridge switch with the best path cost to the root bridge is referred to as:",
    "options": [
      "Designated port",
      "Root port",
      "Default port",
      "Forwarding port"
    ],
    "answer": "Root port"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a switch port that has the lowest path cost to the root bridge on a particular network segment?",
    "options": [
      "Default port",
      "Priority port",
      "Designated port",
      "Active port"
    ],
    "answer": "Designated port"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a switch port that does not forward traffic to prevent loops?",
    "options": [
      "Blocked port",
      "Disabled port",
      "Suspended port",
      "Isolated port"
    ],
    "answer": "Blocked port"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a switch port that has been manually shut down and does not forward any type of traffic?",
    "options": [
      "Suspended port",
      "Disabled port",
      "Blocked port",
      "Non-active port"
    ],
    "answer": "Disabled port"
  },
  {
    "question": "Inactive switch ports that are not part of the best path are said to be in:",
    "options": [
      "Standby state",
      "Idle state",
      "Listening state",
      "Blocking state"
    ],
    "answer": "Blocking state"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below describes a switch port in the blocking state?",
    "options": [
      "Prepares to forward traffic and listens for BPDU messages, but does not forward frames",
      "Learns MAC addresses to populate the MAC table, but does not forward frames",
      "Forwards traffic and updates the MAC table, actively participating in network communication",
      "Does not forward traffic and only listens to BPDU messages to prevent loops"
    ],
    "answer": "Does not forward traffic and only listens to BPDU messages to prevent loops"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a switch port in the listening state?",
    "options": [
      "Does not forward traffic and only listens to BPDU messages to prevent loops",
      "Forwards traffic and updates the MAC table, actively participating in network communication",
      "Prepares to forward traffic and listens for BPDU messages, but does not forward frames yet",
      "Learns MAC addresses to populate the MAC table, but does not forward frames yet"
    ],
    "answer": "Prepares to forward traffic and listens for BPDU messages, but does not forward frames yet"
  },
  {
    "question": "A switch port gathering information about the devices on the network to build its physical address table is said to be in:",
    "options": [
      "Learning state",
      "Discovery state",
      "Listening state",
      "Querying state"
    ],
    "answer": "Learning state"
  },
  {
    "question": "A network technician is called to resolve a connectivity issue between two devices on the same switch. Despite both devices being powered on and properly connected, they cannot communicate with each other. The technician checks the switch and finds all ports are operational and configured as access ports. What could be the most likely cause of this issue?",
    "options": [
      "Malfunctioning switch port",
      "Incorrect VLAN assignment",
      "Faulty network cable",
      "IP address misconfiguration"
    ],
    "answer": "Incorrect VLAN assignment"
  },
  {
    "question": "The entries in an ACL are evaluated sequentially, from top to bottom. The first matching entry is applied, and subsequent entries are ignored, giving higher priority to entries that appear higher in the list.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which policy applies to requests that do not match any criteria defined in an ACL?",
    "options": [
      "Explicit deny any",
      "Implicit allow any",
      "Explicit allow any",
      "Implicit deny any"
    ],
    "answer": "Implicit deny any"
  },
  {
    "question": "A network administrator is troubleshooting an issue where employees in the finance department are unable to access a critical financial application hosted on a server in the data center. The administrator checks the physical connections, server status, and application settings, finding no issues. They then review the ACL on the router that controls traffic between the finance department network and the data center. What could be a potential problem resulting from ACL misconfiguration?",
    "options": [
      "The ACL has incorrect sequence of rules, causing valid traffic to be denied",
      "The ACL is missing rules that permit traffic from the finance department to the server",
      "The ACL is too permissive, allowing unauthorized access from other departments",
      "All of the above"
    ],
    "answer": "All of the above"
  },
  {
    "question": "In routing, the routing table is evaluated in a top-down order, with the most specific route being matched first. If multiple routes match, the router selects the one with the lowest metric or administrative distance.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "In routing, the term \"Administrative distance\" refers to a value used in routers to rank routes from most preferred (high AD value) to least preferred (low AD value).",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "False"
  },
  {
    "question": "The last step of the troubleshooting process should involve:",
    "options": [
      "Implementing preventive measures",
      "Documenting findings, actions, outcomes, and conclusions",
      "Implementing the solution",
      "Verifying full system functionality",
      "Identifying potential effects of the implemented solution"
    ],
    "answer": "Documenting findings, actions, outcomes, and conclusions"
  },
  {
    "question": "To ensure proper functioning of single-mode fiber-optic connections and prevent issues such as signal degradation or data errors, it is essential to use transceivers and connectors specifically designed for single-mode applications.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "What would be the possible outcome of using a multimode fiber for long-distance communication links reserved for single-mode fiber optics?",
    "options": [
      "Signal distortion",
      "Data transmission errors",
      "Limited transmission distance",
      "High signal attenuation",
      "All of the above"
    ],
    "answer": "All of the above"
  },
  {
    "question": "What step should a network technician take if Cat 5 cables are found in a Gigabit Ethernet connection?",
    "options": [
      "Leave the setup as it is",
      "Replace Cat 5 cables with Cat 5e or higher",
      "Shorten the cable lengths",
      "Install repeaters to boost the signal"
    ],
    "answer": "Replace Cat 5 cables with Cat 5e or higher"
  },
  {
    "question": "A network technician discovers a 50-meter-long Cat 6 cable being used for a 10 Gigabit Ethernet connection. What should the technician do?",
    "options": [
      "Extend the cable length",
      "Install repeaters to boost the signal",
      "Leave the network link as is",
      "Replace the cable with Cat 6a or higher"
    ],
    "answer": "Leave the network link as is"
  },
  {
    "question": "While inspecting a network setup, a technician finds a Cat 8 cable being used for 40 Gigabit Ethernet over a 100-meter segment. What action should they take to ensure optimal bandwidth?",
    "options": [
      "Switch to twinaxial cabling",
      "Use repeaters to amplify the signal",
      "Switch to fiber optics",
      "Maintain the current setup"
    ],
    "answer": "Switch to fiber optics"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which type of twisted-pair copper cabling takes advantage of an additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources?",
    "options": [
      "Coax",
      "STP",
      "UTP",
      "Twinax"
    ],
    "answer": "STP"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers do not refer to UTP cabling? (Select 3 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Twisted-pair copper cabling",
      "Commonly used in Ethernet networks and telephone systems",
      "Low cost and ease of installation",
      "Takes advantage of additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources",
      "Coaxial cabling",
      "Not surrounded by any shielding that would provide protection against interference from outside sources",
      "Fiber-optic cabling",
      "In Ethernet networks, installed with RJ45 connector type"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Takes advantage of additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources",
      "Coaxial cabling",
      "Fiber-optic cabling"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "A key feature of all twisted-pair cabling types is that wires inside the cable are grouped into pairs, and the wires in each pair are twisted around each other to reduce signal interference from adjacent wire pairs.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "STP cabling reduces: (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Jitter",
      "Attenuation",
      "Crosstalk",
      "EMI",
      "Signal distortion"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Crosstalk",
      "EMI"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the cabling types listed below is the most susceptible to EMI/RFI?",
    "options": [
      "UTP cabling",
      "Coaxial cabling",
      "STP cabling",
      "Fiber-optic cabling"
    ],
    "answer": "UTP cabling"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which type of network cabling provides immunity against EMI and RFI?",
    "options": [
      "Coaxial",
      "UTP",
      "Twinaxial",
      "STP",
      "Fiber optic"
    ],
    "answer": "Fiber optic"
  },
  {
    "question": "In computer networking, the term \"Attenuation\" refers to a loss in signal strength during transmission caused by increasing distance and obstacles encountered on the signal path. The problem of signal attenuation on the network can be solved by adding a network transceiver device that boosts the signal strength.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "False"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the tools listed below would be used for troubleshooting incorrect pinouts on a cable?",
    "options": [
      "Cable tester",
      "Multimeter",
      "Toner and probe kit",
      "Loopback plug"
    ],
    "answer": "Cable tester"
  },
  {
    "question": "What type of Ethernet cable is used for establishing a direct communication link between two PCs?",
    "options": [
      "Patch cable",
      "Crossover cable",
      "Rollover cable",
      "Straight-through cable"
    ],
    "answer": "Crossover cable",
	"explanation": "Patch: straight through, pc->switch, switch->router | Rollover: serial, used for direct console access | Crossover: like devices, switch->switch etc"

  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a common cabling type used for connecting workstations to network devices?",
    "options": [
      "Patch cable",
      "Rollover cable",
      "Yost cable",
      "Crossover cable"
    ],
    "answer": "Patch cable",
	"explanation": "Patch: straight through, pc->switch, switch->router | Rollover: serial, used for direct console access | Crossover: like devices, switch->switch etc"
  },
  {
    "question": "An Ethernet straight-through cable is also known as a:",
    "options": [
      "Rollover cable",
      "Yost cable",
      "Crossover cable",
      "Patch cable"
    ],
    "answer": "Patch cable"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a feature that allows an Ethernet interface to automatically detect the required cable connection type and configure the connection accordingly?",
    "options": [
      "Adaptive connector",
      "Smart plug interface",
      "Auto MDI-X",
      "Zero-configuration networking"
    ],
    "answer": "Auto MDI-X"
  },
  {
    "question": "What type of network performance issue can CRC metrics help identify?",
    "options": [
      "Transmission error rates",
      "Packet drops",
      "Bandwidth/throughput",
      "Network link utilization"
    ],
    "answer": "Transmission error rates",
	"explanation": "CRC: Cycle Redundancy Check | measurement of crc errors- data corruption during transmission (transmission errors). Help identify performance issues "
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refer to runt frames? (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Fragmented packets resulting from improper MTU settings",
      "Ethernet frames smaller than the minimum allowed size of 64 bytes",
      "Frames that appear due to collisions, faulty network devices, or software bugs",
      "Packets that have been fragmented into smaller pieces due to network congestion",
      "Ethernet frames smaller than the minimum allowed size of 1518 bytes"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Ethernet frames smaller than the minimum allowed size of 64 bytes",
      "Frames that appear due to collisions, faulty network devices, or software bugs"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Giant frames are: (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Frames that exceed the maximum allowed size for IPv4 packets",
      "Caused by misconfigured MTU settings or faulty network equipment",
      "A common means for increasing packet payload to improve the efficiency of data transfer",
      "Frames that exceed the standard Ethernet frame size of 1518 bytes",
      "Also referred to as jumbo frames"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Caused by misconfigured MTU settings or faulty network equipment",
      "Frames that exceed the standard Ethernet frame size of 1518 bytes"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "What are packet drops in networking?",
    "options": [
      "Packets rejected due to ACL rules or firewall configurations",
      "Packets duplicated across multiple network paths",
      "Packets lost due to congestion, buffer overflow, or other network issues",
      "Packets redirected to an incorrect network segment"
    ],
    "answer": "Packets lost due to congestion, buffer overflow, or other network issues"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which operational state indicates that a port has been shut down by the switch due to network errors, security violations, or configuration issues?",
    "options": [
      "Blocking",
      "Error disabled",
      "Administratively down",
      "Suspended"
    ],
    "answer": "Error disabled"
  },
  {
    "question": "A switch port that has been manually shut down for maintenance, security, or policy reasons has a status of:",
    "options": [
      "Inactive",
      "Suspended",
      "Administratively down",
      "Disabled"
    ],
    "answer": "Administratively down"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which port interface status indicates that a switch port is temporarily inactive due to network conditions, configuration settings, or security policies?",
    "options": [
      "Standby",
      "Disabled",
      "Suspended",
      "Dormant"
    ],
    "answer": "Suspended"
  },
  {
    "question": "In the context of secure network designs, the term \"Port security\" may apply to:",
    "options": [
      "Implementing port-based NAC",
      "Disabling unused logical network ports",
      "Implementing MAC address filtering",
      "Disabling physical ports on a device",
      "All of the above"
    ],
    "answer": "All of the above"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which IEEE standard is applicable in scenarios where an Ethernet switch acts as an authenticator for devices attempting to connect to a network through one of its ports?",
    "options": [
      "IEEE 802.1X",
      "IEEE 802.3af",
      "IEEE 802.1Q",
      "IEEE 802.11x"
    ],
    "answer": "IEEE 802.1X"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a network security access control method in which a 48-bit physical address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network?",
    "options": [
      "Rule-based access control",
      "MAC address filtering",
      "Port-based authentication",
      "802.1X authentication"
    ],
    "answer": "MAC address filtering"
  },
  {
    "question": "A network security technique that controls access to specific websites or categories of websites by blocking or allowing access based on the website address is known as:",
    "options": [
      "Domain blacklisting",
      "URL filtering",
      "Web address exclusion",
      "Content filtering"
    ],
    "answer": "URL filtering"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a network security technique that involves inspecting data streams for specific criteria, such as keywords, file types, or patterns that could indicate inappropriate, harmful, or malicious content?",
    "options": [
      "Packet filtering",
      "Stateful inspection",
      "Content filtering",
      "Malware inspection"
    ],
    "answer": "Content filtering"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a network security solution providing a single point of protection against various types of threats?",
    "options": [
      "IDP",
      "AV",
      "UTM",
      "NGFW"
    ],
    "answer": "UTM"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the concept of a trusted zone? (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "Private network",
      "The Internet",
      "LAN",
      "Guest network",
      "Intranet",
      "Public Wi-Fi network"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Private network",
      "LAN",
      "Intranet"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refer(s) to the concept of an untrusted zone? (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "Intranets",
      "LANs",
      "Public Wi-Fi networks",
      "The Internet",
      "Guest networks"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Public Wi-Fi networks",
      "The Internet",
      "Guest networks"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "A lightly protected subnet consisting of publicly available servers placed on the outside of the company's firewall is called:",
    "options": [
      "Captive portal",
      "Quarantine network",
      "Extranet",
      "Screened subnet"
    ],
    "answer": "Screened subnet"
  },
  {
    "question": "A screened subnet is an example of a semi-trusted zone that acts as a buffer zone between the trusted internal network and untrusted external networks.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to the very first step in the troubleshooting process?",
    "options": [
      "Implementing preventative measures",
      "Establishing a theory of probable cause of the problem",
      "Verifying full system functionality",
      "Identifying the problem",
      "Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem"
    ],
    "answer": "Identifying the problem"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which specific actions are not performed in the first step of the troubleshooting process? (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Gathering information",
      "Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem",
      "Questioning users",
      "Identifying symptoms",
      "Determining recent changes",
      "Establishing a theory of probable cause",
      "Duplicating the problem"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem",
      "Establishing a theory of probable cause"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "In the troubleshooting methodology, establishing a theory of probable cause should come as the:",
    "options": [
      "First step of the troubleshooting process",
      "Second step of the troubleshooting process",
      "Third step of the troubleshooting process",
      "Fourth step of the troubleshooting process"
    ],
    "answer": "Second step of the troubleshooting process"
  },
  {
    "question": "In the OSI model troubleshooting methodology, which layer does the top-to-bottom approach start with?",
    "options": [
      "The Physical Layer",
      "The Network Layer",
      "The Transport Layer",
      "The Application Layer"
    ],
    "answer": "The Application Layer"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which OSI-based troubleshooting approach would be best suited for a situation where the suspected problem might be related to hardware?",
    "options": [
      "Top-to-bottom approach",
      "Divide-and-conquer approach",
      "Follow-the-path approach",
      "Bottom-to-top approach"
    ],
    "answer": "Bottom-to-top approach"
  },
  {
    "question": "In the troubleshooting methodology, the process of establishing a theory of probable problem cause does not involve:",
    "options": [
      "Top-to-bottom OSI layer approach",
      "Applying multiple approaches to the problem",
      "Verifying the most common issues (Questioning the obvious)",
      "Bottom-to-top OSI layer approach",
      "Asking for assistance (Escalating)"
    ],
    "answer": "Asking for assistance (Escalating)"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which step in the troubleshooting methodology involves gathering information by questioning users?",
    "options": [
      "Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem",
      "Documenting findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned throughout the process",
      "Identifying the problem",
      "Establishing a theory of probable problem cause"
    ],
    "answer": "Identifying the problem"
  },
  {
    "question": "Once the theory of probable cause of the problem has been established, the next troubleshooting step should involve:",
    "options": [
      "Verifying full system functionality",
      "Testing the theory to determine the problem cause",
      "Implementing the solution",
      "Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem"
    ],
    "answer": "Testing the theory to determine the problem cause"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which step of the troubleshooting process involves reestablishing a new theory or escalating the problem?",
    "options": [
      "Establishing a theory of probable problem cause",
      "Identifying the problem",
      "Testing the theory to determine the problem cause",
      "Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem"
    ],
    "answer": "Testing the theory to determine the problem cause",
	"explanation": "1: identify problem | 2: probable cause? | 3: test theory | 4: plan of action! any side effects? | 5: implement the plan or escalate | 6: verify it worked | 7: document findings and lessons"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the troubleshooting steps involves establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem?",
    "options": [
      "First step",
      "Second step",
      "Third step",
      "Fourth step"
    ],
    "answer": "Fourth step",
	"explanation": "1: identify problem | 2: probable cause? | 3: test theory | 4: plan of action! any side effects? | 5: implement the plan or escalate | 6: verify it worked | 7: document findings and lessons"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which step of the troubleshooting process involves identifying potential effects of the implemented solution?",
    "options": [
      "First step",
      "Second step",
      "Third step",
      "Fourth step"
    ],
    "answer": "Fourth step"
  },
  {
    "question": "Once a plan of action to resolve a problem has been established, the next step in the troubleshooting process should involve: (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Implementing preventive measures if applicable",
      "Testing the theory to determine problem cause",
      "Implementing the solution",
      "Establishing a theory of probable cause of the problem",
      "Asking for assistance as necessary (Escalating)"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Implementing the solution",
      "Asking for assistance as necessary (Escalating)"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "According to the troubleshooting methodology, verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventive measures should be performed as the:",
    "options": [
      "Next step after documenting findings, actions, and outcomes",
      "First step of the troubleshooting process",
      "Next step after implementing the solution",
      "Last step of the troubleshooting process"
    ],
    "answer": "Next step after implementing the solution"
  },
  {
    "question": "In the troubleshooting methodology, a solution to the problem should be implemented: (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Before escalating the problem",
      "After establishing a plan of action and identifying potential effects of the implemented solution",
      "Before verifying full system functionality and implementing preventive measures",
      "After verifying full system functionality and implementing preventive measures",
      "Before reestablishing a new theory if the current theory has not been confirmed",
      "After documenting findings, actions, outcomes, and conclusions"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "After establishing a plan of action and identifying potential effects of the implemented solution",
      "Before verifying full system functionality and implementing preventive measures"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "The last step of the troubleshooting process should come as the next consecutive step after: (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Implementing the solution",
      "Verifying full system functionality",
      "Identifying potential effects of the implemented solution",
      "Documenting findings, actions, outcomes, and conclusions",
      "Implementing preventive measures"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Verifying full system functionality",
      "Implementing preventive measures"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following terms refers to a broad category of control and automation systems used in industrial settings to monitor and control physical processes and machinery?",
    "options": [
      "ICS",
      "SCADA",
      "OT",
      "IIoT"
    ],
    "answer": "ICS"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a technology that encompasses all hardware and software systems used for monitoring and controlling physical devices, processes, and industrial operations?",
    "options": [
      "IIoT",
      "OT",
      "SCADA",
      "ICS"
    ],
    "answer": "OT"
  },
  {
    "question": "A type of network that provides access to the internet but not to the internal network is referred to as a guest network. Setting up a separate network for visitors (handled by a dedicated AP) protects the internal network against risks related to unauthorized activities and malware infections.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "A mobile device deployment model that allows employees to use private mobile devices for accessing the company's restricted data and applications is known as:",
    "options": [
      "COPE",
      "BYOD",
      "CMS",
      "CYOD"
    ],
    "answer": "BYOD"
  },
  {
    "question": "A DoS attack is a cyberattack that disrupts access to a website, service, or network by overwhelming it with excessive traffic or malicious requests from a single, compromised source. A more advanced form of DoS attack where multiple compromised systems flood a target with traffic, making it harder to detect and defend against, is called:",
    "options": [
      "Syn flood",
      "Amplification attack",
      "MitM attack",
      "DDoS"
    ],
    "answer": "DDoS"
  },
  {
    "question": "What is the primary technique used to bypass VLAN segmentation and access data on another VLAN, typically by manipulating traffic with an unauthorized VLAN ID?",
    "options": [
      "VLAN pivoting",
      "VLAN ID collision",
      "VLAN hopping",
      "VLAN spoofing"
    ],
    "answer": "VLAN hopping"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which network attack involves overwhelming a switch with a large volume of frames from fake source addresses, leading the switch to broadcast traffic to all ports?",
    "options": [
      "ARP spoofing",
      "MAC flooding",
      "ARP poisoning",
      "MAC spoofing"
    ],
    "answer": "MAC flooding"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a network protocol used by devices on a local network to discover the Layer 2 address associated with a given Layer 3 address?",
    "options": [
      "TCP",
      "GRE",
      "ARP",
      "DNS"
    ],
    "answer": "ARP"
  },
  {
    "question": "A table stored in the memory of a network device (such as a computer, router, or switch) that maps IP addresses to their corresponding MAC addresses is referred to as:",
    "options": [
      "IP routing table",
      "MAC address table",
      "ARP cache",
      "DHCP lease table"
    ],
    "answer": "ARP cache"
  },
  {
    "question": "An attacker sends malicious ARP packets to a target device, falsely claiming to be a trusted device by associating their own MAC address with the IP address of the trusted device. This type of attack is known as:",
    "options": [
      "MAC spoofing",
      "ARP poisoning",
      "MAC flooding",
      "ARP spoofing"
    ],
    "answer": "ARP spoofing"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the terms listed below refers to a situation in which a device's ARP cache contains incorrect IP-to-MAC address mappings?",
    "options": [
      "IP conflict",
      "MAC table corruption",
      "ARP poisoning",
      "Rogue DHCP server"
    ],
    "answer": "ARP poisoning"
  },
  {
    "question": "Remapping a domain name to a rogue IP address in a DNS resolver cache is an example of what kind of exploit?",
    "options": [
      "DNS poisoning",
      "DNS rebinding",
      "DNS spoofing",
      "DNS tunneling"
    ],
    "answer": "DNS poisoning"
  },
  {
    "question": "An attacker intercepts a DNS query and responds with a forged DNS record, tricking the target into connecting to a malicious IP address instead of the intended destination. What type of exploit does this describe?",
    "options": [
      "DNS tunneling",
      "DNS spoofing",
      "DNS rebinding",
      "DNS poisoning"
    ],
    "answer": "DNS spoofing"
  },
  {
    "question": "Several devices on a corporate network are experiencing IP address conflicts, unexpected IP assignments, and intermittent connectivity issues. Upon investigation, the network administrator discovers that some devices are receiving IP configurations with incorrect subnet masks, default gateways, and DNS settings. What is the most likely cause of these issues?",
    "options": [
      "DNS server failure",
      "Rogue AP",
      "Disabled DHCP relay agent",
      "Rogue DHCP server"
    ],
    "answer": "Rogue DHCP server"
  },
  {
    "question": "The term \"Evil twin\" refers to a rogue WAP set up for eavesdropping or stealing sensitive user data. The evil twin replaces a legitimate AP by advertising its own presence with the same SSID, which causes networked hosts to perceive it as the correct AP to connect to.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following statements can be used to describe the characteristics of an on-path attack? (Select 3 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Attackers intercept and modify the packets sent between two communicating devices",
      "Attackers must have physical access to the network infrastructure to execute an on-path attack",
      "Attackers can impersonate one of the communicating parties to alter the communication",
      "An on-path attack may succeed only if at least one of the communicating devices has been compromised",
      "Attackers place themselves on the communication route between two devices"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Attackers intercept and modify the packets sent between two communicating devices",
      "Attackers can impersonate one of the communicating parties to alter the communication",
      "Attackers place themselves on the communication route between two devices"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "A social engineering technique whereby attackers under the disguise of a legitimate request attempt to gain access to confidential information is called:",
    "options": [
      "Spoofing",
      "Phishing",
      "Smishing",
      "Pharming"
    ],
    "answer": "Phishing"
  },
  {
    "question": "In the context of computer security, the term \"Dumpster diving\" refers to the practice of searching through trash for discarded documents or storage media. Found items may contain sensitive data, such as employee names, positions, and other confidential information, which can be used for malicious purposes. Proper disposal methods (through shredding, incineration, or other means) make dumpster diving less effective and reduces the risk of social engineering attacks.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "Privacy filter is a protective overlay placed on the computer screen that narrows the viewing angle, so the screen content is only visible directly in front of the monitor and cannot be seen by others nearby. This type of protection provides a countermeasure against:",
    "options": [
      "Screen scraping",
      "Spear phishing",
      "Social engineering",
      "Shoulder surfing"
    ],
    "answer": "Shoulder surfing"
  },
  {
    "question": "What is tailgating?",
    "options": [
      "Acquiring unauthorized access to confidential data",
      "Gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person (without the consent of the authorized person)",
      "Looking over someone's shoulder to get information",
      "Gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person (with the consent of the authorized person)",
      "Manipulating a user into disclosing confidential information"
    ],
    "answer": "Gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person (without the consent of the authorized person)"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a collective term used for harmful programs designed to disrupt computers or networks, gather sensitive information, or gain unauthorized access to devices?",
    "options": [
      "Spyware",
      "Adware",
      "Malware",
      "Ransomware"
    ],
    "answer": "Malware"
  },
  {
    "question": "A standalone malicious computer program that typically propagates itself over a computer network, causing adverse effects on system resources and network bandwidth, is referred to as:",
    "options": [
      "Worm",
      "Fileless virus",
      "Bot",
      "Logic bomb"
    ],
    "answer": "Worm"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refer to workstation hardening techniques? (Select 3 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Hiding administrator accounts",
      "Regularly applying security patches and updates to the OS and installed software",
      "Disabling all internet access",
      "Removing or disabling unnecessary drivers, services, network protocols, or software",
      "Limiting unauthorized or unauthenticated user access"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Regularly applying security patches and updates to the OS and installed software",
      "Removing or disabling unnecessary drivers, services, network protocols, or software",
      "Limiting unauthorized or unauthenticated user access"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to (a) router hardening technique(s)? (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "Changing default credentials",
      "Disabling unused ports and services",
      "Changing device name",
      "Disabling the broadcasting of the router's SSID",
      "Implementing regular firmware updates"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Changing default credentials",
      "Disabling unused ports and services",
      "Implementing regular firmware updates"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "The importance of changing default usernames and passwords can be illustrated using the example of certain network devices (such as routers), which are often shipped with default, well-known admin credentials that can be looked up on the web.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refer to data states where data encryption is either almost always necessary or strongly recommended? (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Data in transit",
      "Data in cache",
      "Data in use",
      "Data at rest",
      "Data in memory"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Data in transit",
      "Data at rest"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "A hierarchical system for the creation, management, storage, distribution, and revocation of digital certificates is known as:",
    "options": [
      "PKI",
      "RA",
      "PKCS",
      "CA"
    ],
    "answer": "PKI"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below can be used to describe self-signed digital certificates? (Select 3 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Backed by a well-known and trusted third party",
      "Not trusted by default by web browsers and other applications",
      "Used in trusted environments, such as internal networks and development environments",
      "Suitable for websites and other applications that are accessible to the public",
      "Trusted by default by web browsers and other applications",
      "Not backed by a well-known and trusted third party"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Not trusted by default by web browsers and other applications",
      "Used in trusted environments, such as internal networks and development environments",
      "Not backed by a well-known and trusted third party"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a framework for managing access control to digital resources?",
    "options": [
      "PAM",
      "SSO",
      "IAM",
      "MFA"
    ],
    "answer": "IAM",
	"explanation": "IAM: Identity Access Mgmt, covers all users, the framework | PAM: Privleged Access Mgmt, covers admin accounts, specialized subset of IAM"
  },
  {
    "question": "Authentication process can be based on various categories of authentication factors. These include knowledge-based factors such as usernames, passwords, PINs, or security question answers (\"something you know\"), possession-based factors (i.e., physical tokens) such as smart cards, key fobs, or security keys (\"something you have\"), inherence-based factors that include unique physical traits of each individual, such as fingerprints, iris scans, facial recognition, or voice patterns (\"something you are\"), or location-based factors such as geolocation data or IP addresses (\"somewhere you are\"). A multifactor authentication system requires the implementation of authentication factors from two or more distinct categories.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components (such as separate hosts on a network) after a single login on only one of the components is called:",
    "options": [
      "NAC",
      "SSO",
      "IAM",
      "MFA"
    ],
    "answer": "SSO"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a client-server protocol that provides centralized AAA services for remote-access users?",
    "options": [
      "OAuth",
      "RADIUS",
      "LDAP",
      "OpenID"
    ],
    "answer": "RADIUS"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a protocol designed for managing user accounts, groups, devices, and other resources within an organization?",
    "options": [
      "SAML",
      "IAM",
      "OpenID",
      "LDAP"
    ],
    "answer": "LDAP"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a markup language used to exchange authentication and authorization data?",
    "options": [
      "JSON",
      "XML",
      "SAML",
      "XHTML"
    ],
    "answer": "SAML"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a AAA protocol primarily used for managing access to network devices?",
    "options": [
      "SNMP",
      "TACACS+",
      "SSH",
      "RADIUS"
    ],
    "answer": "TACACS+"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to an authentication mechanism that generates one-time passwords based on the current time and a secret key?",
    "options": [
      "OAuth",
      "TOTP",
      "RADIUS",
      "HOTP"
    ],
    "answer": "TOTP"
  },
  {
    "question": "The principle of least privilege is a security rule that prevents users from accessing information and resources that lie beyond the scope of their responsibilities.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which type of control access model connects user permissions to their specific responsibilities?",
    "options": [
      "DAC",
      "RBAC",
      "MAC",
      "ABAC"
    ],
    "answer": "RBAC"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a technology that provides control over the usage of a mobile device within a designated area?",
    "options": [
      "Geofencing",
      "Device tracking",
      "Perimeter security",
      "Geolocation"
    ],
    "answer": "Geofencing"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refer to security controls designed to deter, detect, or prevent unauthorized access, theft, damage, or destruction of material assets? (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Hardware lock",
      "Biometric authentication",
      "Security camera",
      "Firewall",
      "Network segmentation"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Hardware lock",
      "Security camera"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following statements about honeypots are true? (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Honeypots are always part of a honeynet",
      "Honeypots mimic real systems to attract cyber attackers",
      "Honeypots are a type of anti-malware solution",
      "Honeypots contain apparent vulnerabilities that are closely monitored by a security team",
      "Honeypots are used to launch attacks on cyber attackers"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Honeypots mimic real systems to attract cyber attackers",
      "Honeypots contain apparent vulnerabilities that are closely monitored by a security team"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "What is a honeynet in the context of cybersecurity?",
    "options": [
      "A network of IDSs",
      "A network of honeypots",
      "A network of infected hosts",
      "A network of infected hosts A network of IPSs"
    ],
    "answer": "A network of honeypots"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a honeynet example?",
    "options": [
      "A network of fake websites",
      "A network of fake servers",
      "A network of fake databases",
      "A network of fake file shares",
      "All of the above"
    ],
    "answer": "All of the above"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following acronyms can be used to describe the basic principles of information security?",
    "options": [
      "ZTA",
      "PKI",
      "AAA",
      "CIA"
    ],
    "answer": "CIA"
  },
  {
    "question": "The purpose of PCI DSS is to provide protection for:",
    "options": [
      "Credit cardholder data",
      "Licensed software",
      "User passwords",
      "Personal health information"
    ],
    "answer": "Credit cardholder data"
  },
  {
    "question": "What regulation governs the privacy of personal data for EU citizens?",
    "options": [
      "PHI",
      "HIPAA",
      "PCI DSS",
      "GDPR"
    ],
    "answer": "GDPR"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a network of interconnected devices equipped with sensors (such as wearable tech or home automation devices) that can interact with each other to perform various tasks and functions?",
    "options": [
      "ICS",
      "PAN",
      "IoT",
      "SoC"
    ],
    "answer": "IoT"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to the subset of IoT specifically designed for industrial applications?",
    "options": [
      "IIoT",
      "OT",
      "SCADA",
      "ICS"
    ],
    "answer": "IIoT"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a specific type of ICS?",
    "options": [
      "SoC",
      "CMS",
      "SCADA",
      "RTOS"
    ],
    "answer": "SCADA"
  },
  {
    "question": "What is the primary role of a DNS forward lookup zone?",
    "options": [
      "Delegates authority for subdomains",
      "Maintains a cache of previously resolved queries",
      "Defines the authoritative name server for the domain",
      "Maps hostnames to IP addresses"
    ],
    "answer": "Maps hostnames to IP addresses"
  },
  {
    "question": "A DNS reverse lookup zone:",
    "options": [
      "Maps IP addresses to hostnames",
      "Handles recursive queries for IP address resolution",
      "Manages zone transfers between DNS servers",
      "Resolves wildcard domain queries"
    ],
    "answer": "Maps IP addresses to hostnames"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which type of DNS server is responsible for storing and providing the original DNS records for a domain?",
    "options": [
      "Anycast DNS server",
      "Forwarding DNS server",
      "Root DNS server",
      "Authoritative DNS server"
    ],
    "answer": "Authoritative DNS server"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which type of DNS server responds to queries using cached or forwarded data but does not hold the original records for a domain?",
    "options": [
      "Load-balancing DNS server",
      "Dynamic DNS server",
      "Secondary DNS server",
      "Non-authoritative DNS server"
    ],
    "answer": "Non-authoritative DNS server"
  },
  {
    "question": "An authoritative DNS server that stores original records for a domain is referred to as:",
    "options": [
      "Public DNS server",
      "Root DNS server",
      "Primary DNS server",
      "Global DNS server"
    ],
    "answer": "Primary DNS server"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a backup DNS server that holds a copy of the DNS records for a domain?",
    "options": [
      "Caching DNS server",
      "Failover DNS server",
      "Secondary DNS server",
      "Mirrored DNS server"
    ],
    "answer": "Secondary DNS server"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which type of DNS lookup involves a DNS server contacting multiple servers on behalf of the client to fully resolve a domain name and return the corresponding IP address?",
    "options": [
      "Recursive DNS lookup",
      "Dynamic DNS lookup",
      "Iterative DNS lookup",
      "Non-recursive DNS lookup"
    ],
    "answer": "Recursive DNS lookup"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following can be used on a local machine to override DNS settings?",
    "options": [
      "NIC settings",
      "Hosts file",
      "DNS cache",
      "Routing table"
    ],
    "answer": "Hosts file"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a time synchronization protocol designed for environments requiring nanosecond precision (e.g., financial systems, industrial automation)?",
    "options": [
      "RTP",
      "TSP",
      "PTP",
      "NTP"
    ],
    "answer": "PTP"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a solution designed to protect time synchronization data against various types of attacks?",
    "options": [
      "NTS",
      "SNTP",
      "NTP",
      "TSP"
    ],
    "answer": "NTS",
	"explanation": "NTS: Network Time security, protects it | SNTP: SIMPLE network time, designed for devices that don't need high precision | NTP: Network Time Protocol | PTP: Precision Time Protocol"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which type of VPN enables connectivity between networks?",
    "options": [
      "Cross-domain VPN",
      "Remote access VPN",
      "Site-to-site VPN",
      "Access gateway VPN"
    ],
    "answer": "Site-to-site VPN"
  },
  {
    "question": "A VPN type that enables individual users to securely access a remote network is known as: (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Client-based VPN",
      "Remote access VPN",
      "Endpoint VPN",
      "Client-to-site VPN",
      "Network access VPN"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Remote access VPN",
      "Client-to-site VPN"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a common implementation of clientless VPN access?",
    "options": [
      "Web browser",
      "Command-line interface",
      "Proxy server",
      "VPN gateway"
    ],
    "answer": "Web browser"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following terms is used to describe a type of VPN solution that alleviates bottlenecks and conserves bandwidth by enabling utilization of both the VPN and public network links?",
    "options": [
      "Channel bonding",
      "Load balancing",
      "Split tunneling",
      "Link aggregation"
    ],
    "answer": "Split tunneling"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to SSH?",
    "options": [
      "Automates communication between different systems",
      "Establishes a physical, direct connection to a network device",
      "Provides secure, remote, command-line access to devices",
      "Offers a user-friendly, visual interface for managing tasks"
    ],
    "answer": "Provides secure, remote, command-line access to devices"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to an example implementation of a GUI-based remote network connection type?",
    "options": [
      "API",
      "SSH",
      "CLI",
      "RDP"
    ],
    "answer": "RDP"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which network access/management method enables automated communication and integration across different systems?",
    "options": [
      "AI",
      "SDN",
      "ML",
      "API"
    ],
    "answer": "API"
  },
  {
    "question": "In the context of network access and management methods, the term \"Console access\" refers to the method of connecting directly to a network device via a physical port, often using a serial cable or a similar connector. This access method is typically used for initial configuration, troubleshooting, or when remote network access is not available.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a dedicated, secure system that acts as an intermediary to access devices or systems in a different, typically more secure, network segment?",
    "options": [
      "Jump box/host",
      "Authentication server",
      "Network firewall",
      "Access gateway"
    ],
    "answer": "Jump box/host"
  },
  {
    "question": "In computer networking, the practice of managing devices through the same network channels that are used for regular data traffic is called:",
    "options": [
      "In-path management",
      "Inline management",
      "In-band management",
      "Integrated management"
    ],
    "answer": "In-band management"
  },
  {
    "question": "A network administrator is tasked with managing network devices in a critical environment where the primary network is prone to occasional outages. The administrator needs to ensure that they can still access and configure devices for troubleshooting, even if the main network is down. Which of the following management methods would best meet this requirement?",
    "options": [
      "Remote access management",
      "Infrastructure management",
      "Out-of-band management",
      "Hybrid network management"
    ],
    "answer": "Out-of-band management"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to (an) in-band network management method(s)? (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "SSH",
      "HTTP/HTTPS",
      "RDP",
      "Telnet",
      "Console access",
      "SNMP"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "SSH",
      "HTTP/HTTPS",
      "RDP",
      "Telnet",
      "SNMP"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to an out-of-band network management method?",
    "options": [
      "Network tap",
      "USB cable",
      "Console port",
      "Loopback plug"
    ],
    "answer": "Console port"
  },
  {
    "question": "Examples of security solutions used to encrypt data in transit include: (Select 3 answers)",
    "options": [
      "EFS",
      "VPN",
      "SED",
      "IPsec",
      "FDE",
      "TLS"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "VPN",
      "IPsec",
      "TLS"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refer to data at rest? (Select 3 answers)",
    "options": [
      "VoIP call",
      "Archived data",
      "Database record",
      "FTP transfer",
      "Backup file"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Archived data",
      "Database record",
      "Backup file"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the terms listed below refers to an alternate site that provides some pre-installed hardware and software and might have partial data backups, but it is not fully operational and requires additional configuration before use?",
    "options": [
      "Hybrid site",
      "Intermediate site",
      "Warm site",
      "Transitional site"
    ],
    "answer": "Warm site"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which alternate site provides the fastest recovery time in a disaster scenario?",
    "options": [
      "Standby site",
      "Active site",
      "Hot site",
      "Failover site"
    ],
    "answer": "Hot site"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following terms refers to a fully equipped and operational site that is ready to take over operations immediately in the event of a disaster?",
    "options": [
      "Failover site",
      "Hot site",
      "Active site",
      "Standby site"
    ],
    "answer": "Hot site"
  },
  {
    "question": "What are the key characteristics of an active-active configuration approach? (Select 3 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Reduces downtime by ensuring no single point of failure",
      "Easier and less expensive to implement than active-passive setups",
      "May involve a short delay during failover, depending on detection and switchover mechanisms",
      "Common in mission-critical applications requiring continuous uptime",
      "More complex and costly to implement than active-passive setups",
      "Often used in less critical applications or where some downtime is acceptable"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Reduces downtime by ensuring no single point of failure",
      "Common in mission-critical applications requiring continuous uptime",
      "More complex and costly to implement than active-passive setups"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the statements listed below describe the active-passive configuration approach? (Select 3 answers)",
    "options": [
      "May involve brief delays during failover",
      "Reduces downtime with no single point of failure",
      "Simpler and cheaper than active-active setups",
      "Used for mission-critical systems needing constant uptime",
      "Suited for less critical systems with acceptable downtime",
      "More complex and costly than active-active setups"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "May involve brief delays during failover",
      "Simpler and cheaper than active-active setups",
      "Suited for less critical systems with acceptable downtime"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a simulated scenario conducted in a controlled environment, typically involving discussion and planning around hypothetical security incidents?",
    "options": [
      "Tabletop exercise",
      "Red teaming",
      "Security posture assessment",
      "Incident response drill"
    ],
    "answer": "Tabletop exercise"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which type of DR testing involves a hands-on execution of recovery processes?",
    "options": [
      "Validation tests",
      "Threat hunting",
      "Penetration testing",
      "Forensic analysis"
    ],
    "answer": "Validation tests"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the terms listed below refers to permanent IP address assignment from a DHCP server?",
    "options": [
      "Lease renewal",
      "Address pooling",
      "Reservation",
      "Static mapping"
    ],
    "answer": "Reservation"
  },
  {
    "question": "A set of IP addresses that a DHCP server can assign to clients is called:",
    "options": [
      "Range",
      "Lease",
      "Scope",
      "Group"
    ],
    "answer": "Scope"
  },
  {
    "question": "The duration for which a DHCP client is authorized to use a dynamically assigned IP address from a DHCP server is referred to as:",
    "options": [
      "Allocation",
      "Lease",
      "Interval",
      "Reservation"
    ],
    "answer": "Lease"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following terms refers to additional configuration parameters (such as the default gateway, DNS server, or subnet mask) that can be provided by a DHCP server along with the IP address assignment?",
    "options": [
      "Properties",
      "Options",
      "Attributes",
      "Overrides"
    ],
    "answer": "Options"
  },
  {
    "question": "Clients that are not on the same subnet as the DHCP server can still obtain an IP address from the server through a DHCP relay agent (also known as an IP helper).",
    "options": [
      "True**",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True**"
  },
  {
    "question": "A DHCP server's IP exclusion configuration option allows network administrators to remove a single IP address or a range of IP addresses from the pool of addresses automatically assigned to requesting DHCP clients. IP exclusion ensures that DHCP clients are not assigned IP addresses that are statically reserved for critical network devices, such as servers or wireless printers.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "A method used in IPv6 to allow devices to automatically configure their IP addresses without a DHCP server is known as:",
    "options": [
      "BOOTP",
      "EUI-64",
      "LLDP",
      "SLAAC"
    ],
    "answer": "SLAAC",
    "explanation": "SLAAC: Stateless Address Autoconfig: used ipv6, lets devices auto config their own IP without a server, focuses on IP assignment | LLDP: Link Layer Discovery Protocol: advertises device on a LAN, focuses on network discovery"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a suite of DNS security extensions designed to ensure the integrity and authenticity of DNS data?",
    "options": [
      "HMAC",
      "DNSCrypt",
      "PKI",
      "DNSSEC"
    ],
    "answer": "DNSSEC"
  },
  {
    "question": "Examples of protocols specifically designed to provide confidentiality and privacy for DNS data include: (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "DNSSEC",
      "DoH",
      "DTLS",
      "DoT",
      "SSL/TLS"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "DoH",
      "DoT"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to a protocol designed to hide DNS queries in regular web traffic?",
    "options": [
      "DoT",
      "SSL/TLS",
      "DoH",
      "DNSCrypt"
    ],
    "answer": "DoH"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which protocol encrypts DNS queries using a dedicated TLS connection?",
    "options": [
      "SSH",
      "IPsec",
      "DoT",
      "DTLS"
    ],
    "answer": "DoT"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which DNS database record type returns a 32-bit IP address?",
    "options": [
      "MX",
      "AAAA",
      "CNAME",
      "A",
      "PTR"
    ],
    "answer": "A"
  },
  {
    "question": "The DNS AAAA record maps a hostname to:",
    "options": [
      "IPv4 address",
      "Mail server",
      "IPv6 address",
      "Canonical name"
    ],
    "answer": "IPv6 address"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which DNS database record type allows multiple domain names to resolve to the same IP address?",
    "options": [
      "MX",
      "CNAME",
      "AAAA",
      "PTR"
    ],
    "answer": "CNAME",
    "explanation": "MX: mail | cname: canonical name, Alias of one name to another | AAAA: ip6 | PTR: reverse lookups"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the DNS database records listed below maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain?",
    "options": [
      "SPF",
      "NS",
      "MX",
      "PTR"
    ],
    "answer": "MX",
    "explanation": "NS: Name server record: Delegates a DNS zone to use the given authoritative name servers | SPF: DISCONTINUED: Sender Policy Framework protocol as an alternative to storing SPF data in TXT record | PTR: POINTER resorce Record: Pointer to a canonical name, used for reverse lookups | MX: Mail Exchange: List of mail exchange servers that accept email for a domain"
  },
  {
    "question": "What is the function of a DNS TXT record? (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "Resolves an IP address to a hostname for reverse lookups",
      "Maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain",
      "Provides outside services with additional information about a domain",
      "Not used to direct any traffic",
      "Allows multiple domain names to resolve to the same IP address"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Provides outside services with additional information about a domain",
      "Not used to direct any traffic"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "DNS record that specifies a list of additional name servers on a domain is called:",
    "options": [
      "SPF",
      "NS",
      "PTR",
      "SRV"
    ],
    "answer": "NS",
    "explanation": "NS: Name server record: Delegates a DNS zone to use the given authoritative name servers | SPF: DISCONTINUED: Sender Policy Framework protocol as an alternative to storing SPF data in TXT record | PTR: POINTER resorce Record: Pointer to a canonical name, used for reverse lookups | MX: Mail Exchange: List of mail exchange servers that accept email for a domain"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following statements describe the function of a DNS PTR record? (Select 2 answers)",
    "options": [
      "PTR record creates a pointer that maps a hostname to an IP address for reverse lookups",
      "The functionality provided by a PTR record allows multiple domain names to resolve to the same IP address",
      "PTR record resolves an IP address to a hostname for reverse lookups",
      "The functionality provided by a PTR record is the opposite of A and AAAA DNS records",
      "PTR record maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "PTR record resolves an IP address to a hostname for reverse lookups",
      "The functionality provided by a PTR record is the opposite of A and AAAA DNS records"
    ],
	"explanation": "A/AAAA maps hostname → IP address, while PTR records map IP address → hostname" 
  },
  {
    "question": "A fixed reference point that captures the approved, minimum necessary settings, and configurations of a system at a specific time is called:",
    "options": [
      "Baseline",
      "Configuration template",
      "System snapshot",
      "Rollback point"
    ],
    "answer": "Baseline"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following terms is used to describe an optimized, pre-approved setup recognized as ideal or best-performing for deployment across systems?",
    "options": [
      "Default system image",
      "Master template",
      "Golden configuration",
      "Preset baseline"
    ],
    "answer": "Golden configuration"
  },
  {
    "question": "Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a UDP-based application-layer protocol used in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices. SNMP is typically integrated into modern network infrastructure devices, such as routers, bridges, switches, servers, printers, copiers, fax machines, and other network-attached devices. An SNMP-managed network consists of three main components: a managed device, an SNMP agent (network-management software running on the managed device), and a Network Management Station (NMS), which monitors and controls managed devices while collecting SNMP data from agents. The NMS (or manager) receives notifications, called traps, on UDP port 162, while the SNMP agent receives requests on UDP port 161.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "An SNMP-compliant device includes a virtual database containing information about configuration and state of the device that can be queried by an SNMP management station. This type of data repository is referred to as:",
    "options": [
      "DCS",
      "SIEM",
      "MIB",
      "DBMS"
    ],
    "answer": "MIB"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the existing SNMP versions support(s) encryption? (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "SNMPv1",
      "SNMPv2c",
      "SNMPv3",
      "SNMPv4"
    ],
    "answer": "SNMPv3",
    "explanation": "v1: community string, plaintext | v2c: community string, plaintext | v3: (SHA > or MD5) authentication, (AES > or DES) encryption, no community string"
  },
  {
    "question": "An SNMP community string provides the functionality of a(n):",
    "options": [
      "Session token",
      "Password",
      "Encryption key",
      "Device ID"
    ],
    "answer": "Password"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which SNMP version(s) use(s) community strings for authentication? (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "SNMPv1",
      "SNMPv2c",
      "SNMPv3",
      "SNMPv4"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "SNMPv1",
      "SNMPv2c"
    ],
    "explanation": "v1: community string, plaintext | v2c: community string, plaintext | v3: (SHA > or MD5) authentication, (AES > or DES) encryption, no community string"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which SNMP version(s) send(s) authentication data in an unencrypted form? (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "SNMPv1",
      "SNMPv2c",
      "SNMPv3",
      "SNMPv4"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "SNMPv1",
      "SNMPv2c"
    ],
    "explanation": "v1: community string, plaintext | v2c: community string, plaintext | v3: (SHA > or MD5) authentication, (AES > or DES) encryption, no community string"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a network tool specifically designed to monitor network traffic patterns and usage statistics?",
    "options": [
      "Log aggregator",
      "Flow data analyzer",
      "Bandwidth manager",
      "Traffic shaper"
    ],
    "answer": "Flow data analyzer"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refer(s) to (a) dedicated software tool(s) designed to monitor and examine the contents of network traffic? (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "Port scanner",
      "Network mapper",
      "Protocol analyzer",
      "Data flow controller",
      "Packet sniffer"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "Protocol analyzer",
      "Packet sniffer"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "In network monitoring, baseline metrics refer to the standard performance measurements of a network under normal operating conditions. These metrics serve as a reference point for detecting deviations in network performance. Anomaly alerting/notification involves setting up automated alerts to notify administrators of a potential issue, such as when a metric exceeds or falls below an established baseline threshold.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a basic tool for collecting and storing log data?",
    "options": [
      "SNMP agent",
      "Network analyzer",
      "Syslog aggregator",
      "Event viewer"
    ],
    "answer": "Syslog aggregator"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following answers refers to one of the core functionalities of SIEM?",
    "options": [
      "Monitors bandwidth usage across the network",
      "Conducts vulnerability assessments",
      "Enforces security policies on endpoints",
      "Collects, aggregates, and analyzes log data"
    ],
    "answer": "Collects, aggregates, and analyzes log data"
  },
  {
    "question": "What is the main function of API integration in network monitoring?",
    "options": [
      "Network data collection",
      "Real-time intrusion detection and prevention",
      "Automated communication and data exchange",
      "Remote control over network devices"
    ],
    "answer": "Automated communication and data exchange"
  },
  {
    "question": "Port mirroring allows an administrator to inspect traffic passing through a network switch. On a switch that supports port mirroring, a packet analyzer can be connected to an empty port, and the switch can be configured to pass a copy of the data sent over one or multiple ports on that switch to the packet sniffer port, allowing the administrator to monitor the contents of the traffic passing through the switch.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "True"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the tools listed below enables the identification of devices, services, and network topology within a network (network discovery)?",
    "options": [
      "Nmap",
      "ICMP",
      "Wireshark",
      "SNMP"
    ],
    "answer": "Nmap"
  },
  {
    "question": "Examples of tools used for network traffic flow analysis include: (Select all that apply)",
    "options": [
      "sFlow",
      "Nmap",
      "Wireshark",
      "CLI",
      "NetFlow"
    ],
    "answer": [
      "sFlow",
      "Wireshark",
      "NetFlow"
    ]
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following tools is used for evaluating network efficiency and identifying potential bottlenecks (network performance monitoring)?",
    "options": [
      "SNMP",
      "Ping",
      "Nmap",
      "Syslog"
    ],
    "answer": "SNMP"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following acronyms refers to the maximum acceptable amount of data loss defined as a specific point in time before a disaster or outage?",
    "options": [
      "RTO",
      "MTBF",
      "RPO",
      "MTTR"
    ],
    "answer": "RPO"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the answers listed below refers to a maximum allowable time to restore critical business functions after a disruption?",
    "options": [
      "SLA",
      "RTO",
      "MTTF",
      "RPO"
    ],
    "answer": "RTO"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following terms is used to describe the average time required to repair a failed component or device?",
    "options": [
      "MTTF",
      "MTBF",
      "MTBD",
      "MTTR"
    ],
    "answer": "MTTR"
  },
  {
    "question": "A high MTBF value indicates that a component or system provides low reliability and is more likely to fail.",
    "options": [
      "True",
      "False"
    ],
    "answer": "False"
  },
  {
    "question": "A disaster recovery facility that provides only the physical space, without equipment or pre-configured resources, for recovery operations is known as:",
    "options": [
      "Passive site",
      "Cold site",
      "Redundancy site",
      "Backup site"
    ],
    "answer": "Cold site"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which alternate site is the least expensive to implement?",
    "options": [
      "Base site",
      "Static site",
      "Cold site",
      "Passive site"
    ],
    "answer": "Cold site"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which device can be configured via a command-line interface or web-based management GUI, and can sometimes be configured in groups?",
    "options": ["Unmanaged switch", "Managed router", "Managed switch", "Unmanaged router"],
    "answer": "Managed switch",
    "explanation": " unmanaged = plug and play, managed = full control | Managed switches can be configured via CLI or web GUI and can be stacked/configured in groups. Routers don't get stacked like switches do."
  },
  {
    "question": "What is the most popular protocol for exchanging VLAN configuration information between switches?",
    "options": ["IEEE 802.1Q", "Cisco ISL", "MVRP", "Cisco VTP"],
    "answer": "Cisco VTP",
    "explanation": "Context clue: they want CONFIG INFO | VTP: VLAN Trunking Protocol: propagates VLAN database changes between switches | 802.1Q: is the trunk encapsulation (vlan tagging), not config propagation."
  },
  {
    "question": "Five workstations are connected to a Layer 2 switch, all in the same VLAN. How many collision domains exist?",
    "options": ["1", "2", "5", "10"],
    "answer": "5",
    "explanation": "Each switch port is its own collision domain, regardless of VLAN assignment."
  },
  {
    "question": "Of the following Wi-Fi standards, which uses DSSS as its transmission method?",
    "options": ["802.11a", "802.11b", "802.11ac", "802.11ax"],
    "answer": "802.11b",
    "explanation": "802.11b is the only standard listed that uses DSSS. Later standards use OFDM or OFDMA."
  },
  {
    "question": "Which SNMP message type is NOT sent by the SNMP manager?",
    "options": ["Trap", "Inform", "Get", "Set"],
    "answer": "Trap",
    "explanation": "Trap is sent by the managed device (agent) to the manager, unsolicited. Get and Set are sent by the manager."
  },
  {
    "question": "An attacker pings Server A by spoofing the IP address of Server B. Later, Server A sends data to Server B but it goes to the attacker's device instead. What occurred?",
    "options": ["DNS poisoning", "ARP poisoning", "Smurf attack", "Evil twin"],
    "answer": "ARP poisoning",
    "explanation": "ARP poisoning: servers- Server A's ARP cache was poisoned to map Server B's IP to the attacker's MAC address. | DNS spoofing: websites and domain names"
  },
  {
    "question": "An organization wants a topology where a single connection break will NOT bring down the entire network. Which topology should they AVOID?",
    "options": ["Ring", "Dual-ring", "Partial mesh", "Full mesh"],
    "answer": "Ring",
    "explanation": "A single ring has one path between nodes - one break disrupts the entire ring (single point of failure)."
  },
  {
    "question": "Which fiber Ethernet standard supports 1000 Mbps over a 2000m SMF link?",
    "options": ["1000BASE-SX", "1000BASE-LX", "100BASE-SX", "100BASE-FX"],
    "answer": "1000BASE-LX",
    "explanation": "1000BASE-SX is limited to 550m on MMF. 1000BASE-LX supports up to 5km on SMF."
  },
  {
    "question": "If an OC-1 link is 51.84 Mbps, what is the bandwidth of an OC-3 link?",
    "options": ["51.84 Mbps", "103.68 Mbps", "155.52 Mbps", "622.08 Mbps"],
    "answer": "155.52 Mbps",
    "explanation": "OC-X = X * 51.84 Mbps. OC-3 = 3 * 51.84 = 155.52 Mbps."
  },
  {
    "question": "A company wants software that automatically handles configuration for personal wireless devices accessing the network as part of a BYOD policy. What should be used?",
    "options": ["AUP", "PUA", "NDA", "MDM"],
    "answer": "MDM",
    "explanation": "Mobile Device Management (MDM) software automatically configures, manages, and secures personal devices on the network."
  },
  {
    "question": "Quality of service (QoS) is a technology that allows a network design to strategically optimize network performance for select traffic types. This means, using QoS on a network device can identify which traffic types need to be sent first, how much bandwidth to allocate to various traffic types, which traffic types should be dropped first in the event of congestion, and how to make the most efficient use of the relatively limited bandwidth of an IP WAN.",
    "options": ["True", "False"],
    "answer": "True",
    "explanation": "Quality of service (QoS) is a suite of technologies that allows you to strategically optimize network performance for select traffic types. For example, in today's converged networks (that is, networks simultaneously transporting voice, video, and data), some applications (for example, voice) might be more intolerant of delay (that is, latency) than other applications (for example, an FTP file transfer is less latency sensitive than a Voice over IP [VoIP] call). Fortunately, through the use of QoS technologies, you can identify which traffic types need to be sent first, how much bandwidth to allocate to various traffic types, which traffic types should be dropped first in the event of congestion, and how to make the most efficient use of the relatively limited bandwidth of an IP WAN."
  },
  {
    "question": "If the bandwidth of an OC-1 link is 51.84 Mbps, what is the bandwidth of an OC-3 link?",
    "options": ["155.52 Mbps", "51.84 Mbps", "1.54 Mbps", "155 Mbps"],
    "answer": "155.52 Mbps",
    "explanation": "Aside from measuring bandwidth in kbps, Mbps, or Gbps, high-speed optical networks often use optical carrier (OC) levels to indicate bandwidth. As a base reference point, the speed of an OC-1 link is 51.84 Mbps. Other OC levels are simply multiples of an OC-1. For example, an OC-3 link has three times the bandwidth of an OC-1 link (that is, 3 * 51.84 Mbps = 155.52 Mbps)"
  },  
  {
    "question": "The actual traffic flow determines the logical topology, while how components are physically interconnected determines the physical topology.",
    "options": ["True", "False"],
    "answer": "True",
    "explanation": "The actual traffic flow determines the logical topology, while how components are physically interconnected determines the physical topology."
  },  
  {
    "question": "How fast is standard Ethernet?",
    "options": ["100 Mbps", "10 Mbps", "10 Gbps", "1 Gbps"],
    "answer": "10 Mbps",
    "explanation": "Cat3: 10Mbps (10BASE-T), 5: 100Mbps (100BASE-TX), 5e:1Gbps (1000BASE-T), Cat6:1Gbps OR 10g up to 55m (10GBASE-T), Cat6a: 10Gbps, Cat7: 10Gbps, Cat8: 25-40Gbps 30m"
  },  
  {
    "question": "Which of the following wireless standards operate at a Maximum Bandwidth of less than 20Mbps?",
    "options": ["802.11ac", "802.11a", "", "802.11g", "802.11b"],
    "answer": "802.11b",
    "explanation": "the 802.11's:   a: 5 GHz, 54 Mbps | b: 2.4 GHz, 11 Mbps | g: 2.4 GHz, 54 Mbps | n: 4: 2.4 + 5, MIMO, 600 Mbps | ac: 5: 5 Ghz, MU-MIMO, 1 Gbps | ax: 6: OFDM"
  },  
  {
    "question": "What does the acronym PPDIOO stand for?",
    "options": ["Prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, optimize", "Precept, placid, disengage, implead, open, obsolete", "Pre-adapt, plant, disrupt, isolate, options, ovulate", "Prevent, play, destroy, incorporate, obtain, obstinate"],
    "answer": "Prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, optimize",
    "explanation": "Asset management, as related to networks, is a formalized system of tracking network components and managing the lifecycle of those components. As an example, Cisco defines the Cisco Lifecycle Services maintenance model, which defines distinct phases in the lifecycle of a network asset using the acronym PPDIOO, which stands for the following:"
  }, 
  {
    "question": "What is the binary version of the decimal number 49?",
    "options": ["00110001", "00110010", "00111010", "10110001"],
    "answer": "00110001",
    "explanation": ""
  },
  {
    "question": "You have a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248, what is the Classless InterDomain Routing (CIDR) notation?",
    "options": ["/26", "/28", "/27", "/29"],
    "answer": "/29",
    "explanation": ""
  },
  {
    "question": "How many octets are in an IPv4 address?",
    "options": ["6", "4", "8", "2"],
    "answer": "4",
    "explanation": ""
  },
  {
    "question": "A service-level agreement (SLA), which specifies performance metrics (for example, available bandwidth and maximum delay) guaranteed for a certain percentage of time.",
    "options": ["True", "False"],
    "answer": "True",
    "explanation": "This is true. For example, an SLA might guarantee a customer that he has a minimum of 256 kbps of bandwidth available 80 percent of the time."
  },
  {
    "question": "For static NAT to work, how many inside global addresses are needed for inside local addresses?",
    "options": ["1 inside global address for every inside local address", "1 inside global addresses for unlimited inside local addresses", "2 inside global addresses for every inside local address", "10 inside global addresses for unlimited inside local addresses"],
    "answer": "1 inside global address for every inside local address",
    "explanation": "1 global for every local. my house uses PAT- 1 to many."
  },
  {
    "question": "The ________ command can be used to display IP address configuration parameters on a Windows PC. Additionally, if the PC uses Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP), the ________ command can also be used to release and renew a DHCP lease, which is often useful when troubleshooting IP address problems in networks.",
    "options": ["arp", "nbstat", "ping", "ipconfig"],
    "answer": "ipconfig",
    "explanation": "Windows is ipconfig, Linux is ifconfig"
  },
  {
    "question": "When a wireless channel uses more than one frequency the transmission method called ________ spectrum.",
    "options": ["Spread", "Long", "Multi", "Broad"],
    "answer": "Spread",
    "explanation": "For Interference/multipath resistance, security | DSSS: Direct Sequence SS: all frequencies, at the same time, using chips | FHSS: Freq Hopping SS:  one frequency at a time, hopping around, no chips"
  },
  {
    "question": "What is the IEEE standard for PoE?",
    "options": ["IEEE 802.1Q", "IEEE 802.3af", "IEEE 802.11", "IEEE 802.1D"],
    "answer": "IEEE 802.3af",
    "explanation": "af: POE | at: POE+ | 1Q: VLAN trunking, native | .11: original wifi | .1d spanning tree"
  },
  {
    "question": "MPLS inserts a 32-bit header between Layer 2 and Layer 3 headers. Because this header is ________ between the Layer 2 and Layer 3 headers, it is sometimes referred to as a(an) ________ header.",
    "options": ["inserted, insert", "inserted, proxy", "added, addon", "shimmed, shim"],
    "answer": "shimmed, shim",
    "explanation": "Multiprotocol Label Switching: speeds up the routing process by shimming a label on it so every router on the way doesn't have to consider it, found in ISP backbones, enterprise WANs"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following is a common OSI Layer 1 (physical layer) troubleshooting issue?",
    "options": ["Port configuration", "Bad module", "VLAN configuration", "dB loss"],
    "answer": "dB loss",
    "explanation": "signal degradation: reflection, refraction, absorption, attenuation, interference, overcapacity, distance limitations"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following traverses a significant distance and usually supports very high data throughput?",
    "options": ["CAN", "WAN", "LAN", "MAN"],
    "answer": "WAN",
    "explanation": "A WAN (wide area network) traverses a significant distance and usually supports very high data throughput."
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following devices will help users to adjust temperature settings based on daily schedules in response to voice commands?",
    "options": ["Smart thermostat", "Smart doorbell", "Smart refrigerator", "Security camera"],
    "answer": "Smart thermostat",
    "explanation": "More sophisticated than programmable thermostats, a smart thermostat allows users to adjust temperature settings based on daily schedules, shifting activity levels inside the home, current weather conditions outside, and in response to voice commands."
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following diagrams is needed while tracking and troubleshooting equipment installed in a rack?",
    "options": ["A network mapper", "A network diagram", "A rack diagram", "A wiring diagram"],
    "answer": "A rack diagram",
    "explanation": ""
  }, 
  {
    "question": "Michael Slater is the new technician in the office. An issue has reduced the performance of the network, but he is unable to diagnose the reason behind the issue. On checking the recommended geographic range for the AP, he realizes that the clients are not within the recommended distance. This has caused multiple data errors and a deterioration in communication. Which of the following issues has caused the issue here?",
    "options": ["Insufficient wireless coverage", "Interference", "Simultaneous wired and wireless connections", "Channel overlap"],
    "answer": "Insufficient wireless coverage",
    "explanation": "Insufficient wireless coverage may occur when a client is too far from an AP or if there are too many obstacles between the two nodes. Communication might occur, but data errors become more probable and slow down communication. So, this should be the issue that Michael has encountered."
  }, 
  {
    "question": "Which of the following fields in a TCP segment confirms receipt of data via return message to the sender?",
    "options": ["Acknowledgment number", "Source port", "Reserved", "Sequence number"],
    "answer": "Acknowledgment number",
    "explanation": "parts of a TCP header: Byte Number: every byte has a unique # | Sequence Number: helps receiver reassemble data even if it arrives out of order- identifies segment's position in the stream | ACK number: confirms all bytes up to this point have been received"
  }, 
  {
    "question": "A special kind of DoS (denial of service) attack has attacked an AAA server with authentication requests that must all be processed and responded to. The network administrator has analyzed the situation and requested you, a network engineer, to use a command by which you can reclaim compromised resources in case of a similar attack in the future. Which of the following commands will you use in this scenario?",
    "options": ["gpudate.exe", "access-list", "floodguard", "gpresult"],
    "answer": "floodguard",
    "explanation": " A floodguard feature might be configured on the AAA server to reclaim compromised resources. Floodguard settings can be changed with the floodguard command."
  }, 
  {
    "question": "Which of the following statements stands true?",
    "options": ["An email can be downloaded to the client computer using POP3.", "The DBMS does not support a multiuser environment.", "HTTP is a secured protocol that provides secure transmission.", "FTP servers provide secure encryption for file transfer."],
    "answer": "An email can be downloaded to the client computer using POP3.",
    "explanation": "POP3: TCP PORT 110 | Using Post Office Protocol, version 3, the email is typically downloaded to the client computer, post which it can be removed from the server."
  }, 
  {
    "question": "Sphinx Infra Ltd. has doubts on how to meet the various privacy, security, and safety precautions installed for their network. You have been hired to analyze the existing modules for which you will need to go through the network documentation before suggesting any change. Which segment in the network document will contain the necessary information you require?",
    "options": ["Network configuration", "Contacts", "Procedures", "Special instructions"],
    "answer": "Special instructions",
    "explanation": "Procedures: Step-by-step instructions for performing specific tasks | Special Instructions: Privacy, security, safety precautions, exceptions, and unique requirements specific to the network"
  }, 
  {
    "question": "Scott & Wayne Law Associates is a private law firm in Atlanta specializing in cases involving violation of environmental laws. The firm currently has approximately 50 employees who all work on various matters and in different departments. You have been hired as a network administrator and tasked with finding a suitable cloud model for the firm. The firm is looking for a comparatively low-cost cloud model that can be accessed only by the employees and senior management but not its clients or third parties. Which of the following cloud models would you choose?",
    "options": ["A community cloud", "A private cloud", "A public cloud", "A hybrid cloud"],
    "answer": "A private cloud",
    "explanation": "public cloud: goes over public lines like the internet. | Private: dedicated to a single org, isolated"
  }, 
  {
    "question": "Moses wants to update the interface of a router. He plans on having a check on the current running configuration file and then wants to copy the running configuration file to the startup configuration file. Analyze which CLI mode Moses must use in this scenario.",
    "options": ["Use the privileged EXEC mode to apply the changes", "Use the global configuration mode to apply the changes", "Use the interface configuration mode to apply the changes", "Use the EXEC mode to apply the changes"],
    "answer": "Use the privileged EXEC mode to apply the changes",
    "explanation": "EXEC: default mode, limited, read-only | Privileged EXEC: Full access to view and run commands, but not config changes | Global Config Mode: Make changes to the entire router | Interface Config mode: config a specific interface"
  }, 
  {
    "question": "What is the data passed between utility programs or applications and the operating system known as?",
    "options": ["Firmware", "Payload", "Host", "Ethernet"],
    "answer": "Payload",
    "explanation": "Data that is passed between applications or utility programs and the operating system is called a payload."
  }, 
  {
    "question": "You have recently been appointed as a network analyst at Hayle Communications. Your first assignment requires you to limit the traffic between a single receiver and a single sender. Which of the following bandwidth management techniques will you use in this scenario?",
    "options": ["QoS", "Flow control", "Congestion control", "DiffServ"],
    "answer": "Flow control",
    "explanation": "Flow control addresses the number of frames that can be handled from end-to-end between a single sender and a single receiver "
  }, 
  {
    "question": "The State of Nevada has organized a gaming championship for which you have been contracted to set up the network connection. The championship is a seven-day long affair with a heavy influx of participants. Which of the following protocols would you choose in setting up such a network?",
    "options": ["TCP", "IP", "ICMP", "UDP"],
    "answer": "UDP",
    "explanation": "context clues: asking about a latency-sensitive protocol"
  }, 
  {
    "question": "You are currently working as a network engineer at GHP Ltd. The network administrator tells you to change a default route and apply the best route available so that the path to the destination can be shortened. Which of the following will help you in doing so?",
    "options": ["Convergence time", "AD", "Overhead", "Routing cost"],
    "answer": "Routing cost",
    "explanation": "AD = which routing protocol wins | Cost = which path within the protocol wins"
  }, 
  {
    "question": "In which of the following forms of attack can an attacker redirect and capture secure transmissions as they occur?",
    "options": ["Deauth attack", "On-path attack", "DNS poisoning", "Back doors"],
    "answer": "On-path attack",
    "explanation": "In an on-path attack, the attacker can redirect and capture secure transmissions as they occur."
  }, 
  {
    "question": "You are working as a network analyst at BBM Infotech. The entire network of computers in the organization had recently been at the receiving end of an attempted hack that eventually turned out to be unsuccessful. However, certain computer systems have sustained sufficient damages. After inspection, it has been found that the firmware in few of the switches has been completely damaged because of the attack. What kind of an attack is this most likely to be?",
    "options": ["PDoS attack", "Deauth attack", "DRDoS attack", "Friendly DoS attack"],
    "answer": "PDoS attack",
    "explanation": "PDoS: permenant, screws firmware | DRDoS: This attack is reflection because the servers are reflecting the packets that the attackers did not originally generate. This attack is also known as amplification because these spoofed IP addresses are used to amplify the amount of traffic that is sent to the intended victim.  "
  }, 
  {
    "question": "Fox Agro, a small business, faces network congestion and connection failures, which affect the network. As a result, the quality of performance of the unit gets adversely affected. You are appointed as a network administrator to determine the best solution to this problem. Which type of routing path will you use to solve this problem?",
    "options": ["Gateway of last resort", "Default route", "Dynamic route", "Static route"],
    "answer": "Dynamic route",
    "explanation": "In a dynamic route, a router automatically calculates the best path between two networks and accumulates this information in its routing table. If congestion or failures affect a network, a router using dynamic routing can detect the problems and reroute messages through a different path."
  }, 
  {
    "question": "As a network administrator of your company, you have decided to implement redundant connections between network devices to solve problems like network bottlenecks. You have decided to implement this change so that multiple network interfaces and ports can act as one logical interface and focus on increasing total throughput and better load balancing. Which of the following will you use to implement this change in your Windows devices?",
    "options": ["Load balancing", "Port aggregation", "NIC teaming", "Clustering"],
    "answer": "NIC teaming",
    "explanation": "Clustering: groups redundant resources like servers together so they look like 1 device | NIC Teaming: NICs inside one machine, more bandwidth and redundancy"
  }, 
  {
    "question": "You have been hired as a systems analyst by an online food delivering service. Your job requires you to keep the network congestion free during peak hours and to ensure that important traffic can survive the congestion while less sensitive frames are discarded. Which of the following techniques will you use in such a scenario?",
    "options": ["Discarding policy", "Window policy", "Admission policy", "Acknowledgment policy"],
    "answer": "Discarding policy",
    "explanation": "Admission: decides to allow new traffic based on bandwidth or not | Discarding: drops low priority packages"
  },   
  {
    "question": "You have successfully implemented a solution to a bug reported by one of the employees of your organization. You also want to ensure that the process has been well documented in the knowledge base of the organization. Which of the following information is not relevant in such a scenario when you put the data into the record books?",
    "options": ["The total number of computers functioning in the organization", "The contact name of the person reporting the issue", "The symptoms of the problem", "The name of the technician who handled the problem"],
    "answer": "The total number of computers functioning in the organization",
    "explanation": ""
  },
  {
    "question": "What is help desk software used for?",
    "options": ["To properly handle substances such as chemical solvents", "To protect the computer from an ESD charge", "To accumulate insights and solutions to problems encountered on a particular network", "To document problems and their resolutions"],
    "answer": "To document problems and their resolutions",
    "explanation": "Most organizations use a call tracking system, also known as help desk software, to document problems and their resolutions."
  },
  {
    "question": "You are hired as a network administrator to monitor an organization's network status on an ongoing basis and to make changes to best meet the needs of your network's users. One feedback that you have received from the network engineer of the firm is that one of the modems is repeatedly power cycling to reset network activity. Which of the following KPIs will help you in getting a better understanding of the situation?",
    "options": ["Utilization", "Jitter", "Interface statistics", "Error rate"],
    "answer": "Interface statistics",
    "explanation": "Error Rate: calculated percentage of how often bits are damaged in transit | Jitter: difference in latency jumping around  | Interface stats: the set of counters on a network interface, metrics on that device"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which type of a recovery plan accounts for the worst-case scenarios and provides contingency plans for restoring or replacing computer systems, power, telephone systems, and paper-based files?",
    "options": ["Hot site", "A disaster recovery plan", "BCP", "An incident response plan"],
    "answer": "A disaster recovery plan",
    "explanation": "BCP: How does the business keep operating during a disaster | DRP: how do we restore IT systems after a disaster"
  },
  {
    "question": "You have been appointed as the network administrator in Well Brew Ltd. The WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup) in the office is user-friendly, but not very secure. A recent problem highlighted that the PIN can be easily cracked through a brute force attack, which means simply trying numerous possible character combinations to find the correct combination. Which of the following attacks have you most likely encountered?",
    "options": ["WPA attack", "WPS attack", "War chalking", "War driving"],
    "answer": "WPS attack",
    "explanation": "WPS: wifi protected setup, easily brute-forcible- not an encryption, but a shortcut on a router to connect devices, should be disabled now | WEP: first wireless, crackable in minutes | WPA: TKIP | WPA2: AES+PSK/RADIUS | WPA3: SAE"
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of these DoS (denial-of-service) attacks damages a device's firmware beyond repair?",
    "options": ["Amplified DRDoS", "PDoS", "DRDoS", "DDoS"],
    "answer": "PDoS",
    "explanation": "PDoS: permenant, screws firmware | DRDoS: This attack is reflection because the servers are reflecting the packets that the attackers did not originally generate. This attack is also known as amplification because these spoofed IP addresses are used to amplify the amount of traffic that is sent to the intended victim."
  },
  {
    "question": "Mr. Anderson had to set up an Ethernet network segment that can transmit data at a bandwidth of 1000 Mbps and cover a distance of 2000 m per segment. The available fiber-optic cable in the market was an SMF cable. Analyze and discuss which of the following fiber Ethernet standards he should follow under such circumstances.",
    "options": ["1000BASE-LX", "1000BASE-SX", "100BASE-SX", "100BASE-FX"],
    "answer": "1000BASE-LX",
    "explanation": "SX: Short wavelength = short range = MMF (550m) | LX = Long wavelength = long range = SMF (Can go 5km)"
  },
  {
    "question": "You are a network engineer at Star Fisheries Ltd., Chicago. They want you to send an encrypted email to their branch office at Michigan. In doing so, which of the OSI layers would you apply?",
    "options": ["Physical layer", "Presentation layer", "Transport layer", "Data link layer"],
    "answer": "Presentation layer",
    "explanation": "In the OSI model, the presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read."
  },
  {
    "question": "Which wireless technology is used to track fitness activity levels and geographic movement?",
    "options": ["NFC", "Infrared", "Bluetooth", "ANT+"],
    "answer": "ANT+",
    "explanation": "ANT+ gathers and tracks information from sensors that are typically embedded in heart rate monitors, GPS devices, and other activity monitoring devices."
  },
  {
    "question": "Which of the following network devices does not fall under the category of 'end devices' as certified by CISCO?",
    "options": ["Router", "Smartphone", "File server", "Network printer"],
    "answer": "Router",
    "explanation": "Routers are an intermediary device because they enable connections on the network but do not, themselves, provide applications or data resources for networked devices to access."
  },
  {
    "question": "Netcom Solutions is an Internet Service Provider that has purchased a fresh wholesale bandwidth from network service provider GT&P. Netcom Solutions has been using duplex technologies running through copper wires for its distribution. It now wants to upgrade to multiplexing technologies using fiber-optic cables so that it can allow multiple signals to travel simultaneously. Analyze which of the following types of multiplexing technologies Netcom should choose in this situation for its connection with GT&P so that it can operate with more channels.",
    "options": ["DWDM", "TDM", "WDM", "FDM"],
    "answer": "DWDM",
    "explanation": "Multiplexing: combining signals onto one shared medium simutaneously | DWDM: DENSE wavelength division Mplexing- 80-160+ channels crammed in there | WDM: only 2-8 channels | FDM: copper, coax, radio | TDM: T1/E1, copper, fiber"
  },
  {
    "question": "Phillips is a trainee who is currently on probation at ICP Solutions. Under which of the following groupings will he classify the network segment of the floors of a building connected by a LAN?",
    "options": ["Departmental boundaries", "VLANs", "Device types", "Geographic locations"],
    "answer": "Geographic locations",
    "explanation": "Context clue: floors of a building- segmenting by PHYSICAL LOCATION, would be geographic. | VLAN: used to implement it, not a classification itself"
  },
  {
    "question": "Jamieson has hired you to set up a wireless network for his new workstation that includes a home router as well. The only problem you are facing while setting up the connection is related to channel overlapping, which is causing interference on other routers that are installed on the first floor of his house. Looking at the situation, you have decided to determine the channels used by other nearby networks and then utilize a less crowded channel. Which of the following devices will you use for this installation?",
    "options": ["Wi-Fi analyzer", "Captive portal", "Spectrum analyzer", "RADIUS"],
    "answer": "Wi-Fi analyzer",
    "explanation": "A Wi-Fi analyzer can evaluate Wi-Fi network availability as well as help optimize Wi-Fi signal settings or help identify Wi-Fi security threats. In case of channel overlapping, a Wi-Fi analyzer can be used to determine which channels are being used by nearby wireless networks, and then utilize a less crowded channel."
  },
  {
    "question": "The organization where you have been working as a network analyst decides to provide BYOD (bring your own device) options to the employees to cut down on its operating costs. The company has asked you to handle the BYOD policies and the necessary documentation. You have decided to install a software that will automatically handle the configuration process for the wireless clients when they require network access. Which of the following will you use in such a scenario?",
    "options": ["AUP", "PUA", "NDA", "MDM"],
    "answer": "MDM",
    "explanation": "AUP (acceptable use policy) explains to users what they can and cannot do while accessing a network's resources. | MDM: Mobile Device Mgmt: the platform IT can use to wipe your phone"
  },
  {
    "question": "What is the maximum supported bandwidth for a Category 5 twisted-pair cable specified under TIA/EIA-568 standards?",
    "options": ["1000 Mbps (1 Gbps, Gigabit Ethernet)", "100 Mbps (Fast Ethernet)", "10 Mbps", "10 Gbps"],
    "answer": "100 Mbps (Fast Ethernet)",
    "explanation": "Cat3: 10Mbps (10BASE-T), 5: 100Mbps (100BASE-TX), 5e:1Gbps (1000BASE-T), Cat6:1Gbps OR 10g up to 55m (10GBASE-T), Cat6a: 10Gbps, Cat7: 10Gbps, Cat8: 25-40Gbps 30m"
  },
  {
    "question": "You are working on a network device that has a subnet mask of /26. How many IP addresses are available according to you?",
    "options": ["30", "62", "32", "64"],
    "answer": "62",
    "explanation": "remember to -2: one address for the subnet address, and one address for the broadcast address. "
  },
  {
    "question": "Chelsea is a hacker who befriends Adele McCain over lunch at the cafeteria. Adele is the senior associate of Spandangle Ltd., a private law firm based in Alabama. Chelsea manages to successfully guess Adele's password to a sensitive database in the law firm. What kind of password attack did she use?",
    "options": ["A dictionary attack", "A zero-day attack", "A brute-force attack", "A rainbow table attack"],
    "answer": "A brute-force attack",
    "explanation": "'successfully guess' implies brute force"
  },  
  {
    "question": "Meredith and Co. provides ISP services to a bulk of the corporates in the Silicon Valley. However, due to the recent COVID outbreak, a lot of the firms have started to allow their employees to work from home. Ceratrix is one such company that wants to allow its employees to work from home; however, certain features are only available to the employees when they have access to their workstations in the organization. This basically means that they would have to command the host computer.  What remote access method should be provided to Ceratrix to fulfill this requirement?",
    "options": ["Remote file access", "VPN", "Terminal emulation", "FTPS"],
    "answer": "Terminal emulation",
    "explanation": "Terminal emulation allows a remote client to take over and command a host computer; the employees will require this in this scenario."
  },  
  {
    "question": "JK Group of Industries is planning a complete revamp of the office infrastructure, and so it has hired Infrared Solutions to upgrade its network connections. It has also requested Infrared Solutions to ensure that this upgrade should not affect the day-to-day functionality within the office premises. Analyze what would be a proper option to carry out this upgrade.",
    "options": ["Document findings, actions, and outcomes.", "Roll out changes in stages.", "Verify functionality and implement preventive measures.", "Establish a plan for resolving the problem."],
    "answer": "Roll out changes in stages.",
    "explanation": "baby steps- also rollbacks are important"
  },  
  {
    "question": "Crom Breweries is an old client of HW Internet Solutions. Crom's IT department calls HW Solutions to inform that the interface is down. HW Solutions sends a network analyst to check the situation. The network analyst assumes that an employee must have shut down the interface. He applies the show interface command to get an overview of all the devices interfaces. Analyze which of the following will help the network analyst to know whether the interface was shut down.",
    "options": ["Bandwidth", "Link state", "Traffic statistics", "MTU"],
    "answer": "Link state",
    "explanation": "Link state indicates whether an interface is up or down. If the interface is administratively down, it has been shut down using the shutdown command or has encountered a configured limitation, such as a security breach."
  },  
  {
    "question": "As a network administrator, you have to deal with a situation where an Ethernet segment leading from your company's data center uses fiber-optic cable to connect to a workgroup switch that only accepts twisted-pair (copper) cable. In this case, which of the following would you use to interconnect the switch with the fiber-optic cable?",
    "options": ["Tone generator", "Fiber transceiver", "Media converter", "Fiber connector"],
    "answer": "Media converter",
    "explanation": "A media converter is hardware that enables networks or segments running on different media to interconnect and exchange signals."
  },
  {
    "question": "Mediacom Communications has requested you to manage the access to its 802.11 standard wireless networks. A recent instance of errors in transmission has been recorded, and in order to fix this problem, you want to run a cyclical code to check for errors in transmission. In which field of the 802.11 data frame will you run this check?",
    "options": ["Trailer", "Data", "Frame Control", "Sequence Control"],
    "answer": "Trailer",
    "explanation": "HEADER: who/what is this? | BODY/DATA: the content | TRAILER: error checksum"
  },  
  {
    "question": "Suppose you notice a sudden decrease in network performance and suspect malware is hogging network resources. Which of the following commands will you use to display the PID (process identifier) associated with your network connection?",
    "options": ["netstat -o", "taskill/f", "takedown/f", "netstat -b"],
    "answer": "netstat -o",
    "explanation": "Every process is assigned a PID. To display the PID associated with each network connection, open an elevated PowerShell or Command Prompt window and enter the command netstat -o."
  },
  {
    "question": "You have been tasked to set up a 10GBASE-T standard Fast Ethernet for JJ Mills Corporation. While doing so, you have managed to follow all the specified standards, and the only thing left to do is to purchase and plug the twisted-cable pairs. Which of the following pairs of twisted cables will you use in this scenario?",
    "options": ["Cat 5", "Cat 6", "Cat 7", "Cat 5e"],
    "answer": "Cat 7",
    "explanation": "Cat3: 10Mbps (10BASE-T), 5: 100Mbps (100BASE-TX), 5e:1Gbps (1000BASE-T), Cat6:1Gbps OR 10g up to 55m (10GBASE-T), Cat6a: 10Gbps, Cat7: 10Gbps, Cat8: 25-40Gbps 30m"
  },  
  {
    "question": "As a network administrator in Wright Elementary School, it is your job to monitor all the devices used by the staff and students. Which of the following commands would you employ to be able to detect, identify, and monitor devices on a network?",
    "options": ["ping", "tcpdump", "netstat", "nmap"],
    "answer": "nmap",
    "explanation": "nmap: enumerate ports/devices | ping: icmp packet 'r u there' | netstat: active connections | tcpdump: pcap traffic dump"
  },  
  {
    "question": "Heroku Industries has a SQL Server database that provides data to clients throughout its network. It has now asked George, a network engineer, to sort an issue within the administration branch where the Windows firewall does not allow access to the users to such databases. Analyze what port should George open up in the firewall so that the issue is resolved.",
    "options": ["1521", "389", "5061", "1433"],
    "answer": "1433",
    "explanation": "1433: SQL | 389: LDAP | 1521: Oracle | 5061: SIP"
  },  
  {
    "question": "JusDial Telecommunications has requested your help to set up a new hostname on a couple of devices. On inspection, you find out that the devices are operating under LINUX systems. Which of the following command lines would you apply to set up a new hostname for the required network devices?",
    "options": ["hostname  A", "hostname", "sudo hostname", "hostname -I"],
    "answer": "sudo hostname",
  "explanation": "sudo to do admin things | A shows FQDN"
  },  
  {
    "question": "Which of the following protocols creates a frame around the payload by adding both a header and a trailer to the payload?",
    "options": ["NDP", "ICMP", "Ethernet", "TCP"],
    "answer": "Ethernet",
    "explanation": "TCP only does a header"
  },  
  {
    "question": "You are employed as a network engineer. While setting up a client's connection, the client requests you to display the concise network layer information of the device interface that is being installed. Which of the following commands will you use in this scenario?",
    "options": ["sh int", "sh ip int br", "sh int sw", "sh int tr"],
    "answer": "sh ip int br",
    "explanation": "br for brief"
  },  
  {
    "question": "You have been working as a network engineer with an organization. You have decided to implement information access control to limit the users and devices that can get to your data and other network resources. For this purpose, you plan on using a username and password as a measure of security to grant any user access to your organization's resources. Which of the elements of the AAAA acronym will you use to apply this security measure",
    "options": ["Auditing", "Authentication", "Accounting", "Authorization"],
    "answer": "Authentication",
    "explanation": "Authentication: verify the creds | Authoriz: determine what you get to touch | Accounting: logslogslogs"
  },  
  {
    "question": "Which form of communication is well suited to users who receive more information from the network than they send to it?",
    "options": ["ADSL", "SDSL", "VDSL", "xDSL"],
    "answer": "ADSL",
    "explanation": "ADSL: asymmetric, big download weak upload | SDSL: symmetric, up and download both max at 2 Mbps | VDSL: very high bit rate! 200down/100up"
  },  
  {
    "question": "Gamezee is a YouTuber who streams games. He has recently hired Jasmine to help him manage the wireless video streaming services. Currently, Gamezee is facing a network fluctuation issue. As a result, there are lags in his live video stream. He wants Jasmine to install the latest available Wi-Fi so that the devices can tap and utilize the maximum bandwidth and increase the throughput. Analyze which frequency range will help Jasmine to fix this issue.",
    "options": ["5.925 GHz-7.125 GHz", "300 GHz-300,000 GHz", "2.457 GHz", "2.4 GHz-2.4835 GHz"],
    "answer": "5.925 GHz-7.125 GHz",
    "explanation": "Wi-Fi 802.11ax, aka Wi-Fi 6E encompasses this"
  },  
  {
    "question": "Must Eat is a company that allows online food delivery. Must Eat rolls out updates every month for better user interface. Recently, after one of its updates, the network team of the company detects certain unauthorized access to the main data frame of the company. On inspection, the team notices that there has been no breach of sensitive data. What kind of cybersecurity exploitation was attempted by the hackers in this scenario?",
    "options": ["It could have been an attempted hack by a white hat hacker.", "It could have been an evil twin exploit.", "It could have been an attempted hack by a gray hat hacker.", "A zero-day attack might have been the cause"],
    "answer": "A zero-day attack might have been the cause",
    "explanation": "zero-day attack, is one that takes advantage of a software vulnerability that hasn't yet or has only very recently become public. "
  },  
  {
    "question": "As a network administrator of Wheeling Communications, you have to ensure that the switches used in the organization are secured and there is trusted access to the entire network. In order to maintain this security standard, you have decided to disable all the unused physical and virtual ports on your Huawei switches. Which of the following commands will you use to bring your plan to action?",
    "options": ["disable", "shutdown", "port-security", "switchport port-security"],
    "answer": "shutdown",
    "explanation": "shutdown for ports"
  },  
  {
    "question": "You, as a network administrator, have been contracted to set up a WLAN network so that you can transmit data directly to the other nodes without any intervening connectivity device. Which of the following will you use for this purpose?",
    "options": ["IBSS", "SSID", "BSS", "ESS"],
    "answer": "IBSS",
    "explanation": " IBSS (independent basic service set), using an ad hoc topology, uses a small number of nodes positioned closely to transmit directly to each other without an intervening connectivity device. | BSS: basic, got da one | ESS: extended, many"
  },  
  {
    "question": "The Mosiac Music School has hired Kirk to set up a SIP protocol for a collaborative multimedia conference session that will be limited to the selected students opting for music theory. Which of the following ports should he use in such a situation so that the required encryption can be provided?  ",
    "options": ["995", "5061", "5060", "993"],
    "answer": "5061",
    "explanation": "995: POP3S | 5060: SIP | 5061: SECURE SIP | 993: IMAP"
  },  
  {
    "question": "The University of Philadelphia wants you to format an IPv4 address through which the dean of the university wants to go on a videoconference with the teaching staff about certain educational norms which they plan on implementing. Which of the following classes of classful addressing will you apply to deliver the requirement?",
    "options": ["Class D", "Class E", "Class C", "Class A"],
    "answer": "Class D",
    "explanation": "Class D addresses are used for multicast networking and are identified by the leading bits 1110 (224.) specifically designed for one-to-many communication"
  },  
  {
    "question": "Which of the following is the third step in a network troubleshooting methodology?",
    "options": ["Identify the problem and its symptoms.", "Establish a theory of probable cause.", "Establish a plan for solving the problem.", "Test your theory to determine the cause."],
    "answer": "Test your theory to determine the cause.",
    "explanation": "1: identify problem | 2: probable cause? | 3: test theory | 4: plan of action! any side effects? | 5: implement the plan or escalate | 6: verify it worked | 7: document findings and lessons"
  },    
  {
    "question": "Lewis has been hired as an assistant to the head network administrator. He needs to understand the basic functioning of certain STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) features that will block BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units) on any port serving network hosts. Which of the following will he use for such purposes?",
    "options": ["A root guard", "A BPDU guard", "A root bridge", "A BPDU filter"],
    "answer": "A BPDU guard",
    "explanation": "BPDU: bridge protocol data unit"
  },
  {
    "question": "Brent recently received funding for his fast-food chain in Michigan. As a result, he hires Angela to set up a top-level domain so that she can start an online delivery system through his web portal as well. He wants Angela to put a unique domain name so that his website appears a little different from the other competitors. Analyze which of the following top level domain names Angela should opt for under such requirements.",
    "options": [".mil", ".com", ".eu", ".biz"],
    "answer": ".biz",
    "explanation": "biz is apparently exciting, mil is military"
  },
  {
    "question": "Identify the core of an RG-6 coaxial cable.",
    "options": ["22 AWG", "20 AWG", "18 AWG", "28 AWG"],
    "answer": "18 AWG",
    "explanation": "RG-59: 20 | RG-6: 18"
  },
  {
    "question": "Hilary has been working on a pilot project for a start-up on which she has been testing the maximum bytes for the length of an IP packet. As her intended IP packets are larger than what the network allows, she has to break them up into smaller packets for transmission. Analyze and suggest which of the following fields Hilary should use in an IPv4 packet so that the receiving host is able to identify and reassemble the fragmented messages.",
    "options": ["Identification", "Version", "Fragment offset", "Flags"],
    "answer": "Identification",
    "explanation": ""
  },
  {
    "question": "You have been invited to the University of Bert to deliver a lecture on network security. In your presentation, you want to focus solely on malware that can harm a system or its resources by disguising itself as something useful. Which of the following categories of malware would be best suited to demonstrate such an example?",
    "options": ["Virus", "Bot", "Trojan horse", "Worm"],
    "answer": "Trojan horse",
    "explanation": "trojan: disguised | virus: needs help | worm: goes nuts on its own"
  },
  {
    "question": "Mr. Chadwick has recently set up a network connection for a client wherein he made a transition between an SMF and an MMF cable using a fusion splicer. Around a week later, the client calls him up and raises a concern about fluctuations in the network. Mr. Chadwick decides to conduct an on-site inspection, and he gets to know that the reason behind the fluctuation is that the transmission has not traversed successfully. Analyze which common fiber problem Mr. Chadwick is referring to in this case.",
    "options": ["Dirty connectors", "Link loss", "Fiber type mismatch", "Wavelength mismatch"],
    "answer": "Fiber type mismatch",
    "explanation": "Wavelength is when the transmissions are going over the wrong type of cable | Fiber type bc he spliced a MMF and SMF together like a doofus"
  },
  {
    "question": "You, as a network engineer, want to have an insight into your network's weaknesses that need attention. You want to search for devices with open ports indicating which insecure service might be used to craft an attack and identify unencrypted sensitive data. Which of the following scanning tools will you use in this scenario?",
    "options": ["Metasploit", "Honeypot", "Nessus", "Nmap"],
    "answer": "Nessus",
    "explanation": "'looking for weaknesses in your own network that need attention' -> nessus"
  },
  {
    "question": "As a network analyst, you have to separate the digital communication of data in a GSM network. Which of the following will you use in this scenario?",
    "options": ["TDM", "TDMA", "SIM", "CDMA"],
    "answer": "TDMA",
    "explanation": "GSM: Global System for Mobile Comms | TDMA: Time Divs Multiplexing Access, divides radio freqs into time slots so many users can use | TDM: Timse Divs Multiplexing, combines signals onto one channel | SIM: Subscriber Identity Module | CDMA: Code Divs Multiple Access"
  },  
  {
    "question": "Youhan has been placed as the security in charge of an organization. Which of the following should he use to monitor the movement and condition of equipment, inventory, and people?",
    "options": ["CCTV", "Motion detectors", "Asset tags", "Tamper detection"],
    "answer": "Asset tags",
    "explanation": "asset tags are those barcode stickers on every device in school to track equipment"
  },  
  {
    "question": "Which of the following will act as the centralized point of interconnection in reference to an organization's LAN, CAN, or WAN?",
    "options": ["MDF", "Demarc Point", "VoIP telephone equipment", "Data Room"],
    "answer": "MDF",
    "explanation": "Main Distribution Frame: main hub/central point of the network"
  },  
  {
    "question": "As a network administrator, a client has approached you to set up the network for MKV, a software company. The company requires sufficient amounts of data for both uploading and downloading purposes; however, it prefers a connection that has better download speed. Which of the following DSL varieties do you think is best suited for such a requirement?",
    "options": ["DWDM", "ADSL", "VDSL", "SDSL"],
    "answer": "VDSL",
    "explanation": "ADSL: asymmetric, big download weak upload | SDSL: symmetric, up and download both max at 2 Mbps | VDSL: very high bit rate! 200down/100up"
  },    
  {
    "question": "Basil Telecommunications have hired you as a network manager for providing a network system that will include redundant processors, backup generators, and earthquake-resilient installation. You have decided that the average downtime per year cannot be more than 5 minutes 15 seconds. Which of the following will you use in this scenario?  ",
    "options": ["Three 9s", "Five 9s", "Two 9s", "Four 9s"],
    "answer": "Five 9s",
    "explanation": "Downtime per year: 99: 3.65 days | 99.9: 8.77hrs | 99.99: 5.26mins | 99.999: 5.26mins | 99.9999: 31.6sec"
  }    
]